We are unable to repay our debts without borrowing massively - that IS a definition of bankruptcy, technically.
I only exempted Germany in order to highlight the huge differential with all the other EU countries. So what?
no, it isn't. The TECHNICAL definition of bankruptcy is being unable to pay your debts.
Is it a surprise that there is a gap in absolute terms between usvand Luxemburg? Even though they give a significantly higher % of GDP?
Oh and can you just confirm clearly that you were wrong to say the UK gives more than the rest of the EU combined?And confirm that you were also wrong, when having pointed out that your own figures showed that to be incorrect, to state there was not much difference?