Offshoot from another discussion: for the background, please see topic 10374 (around message 500) although it's not directly related to this issue.
Yes, why is it good? DT said it's because it's rooted in god - defined in relation to god's purpose, but you should be able to show that it's good without invoking god because you try and use the existence of OM to conclude god, not the other way around.
More to the point, if it's dependent upon a god it's not objective, it's a subjective morality: if the god changes, the morality which is subject to that god also changes.
O.
What if God doesn't change?
Rather depends. If a god chooses not to change then it's still dependent upon that change.
If the god is not capable of change then: a) it's questionable if it's actually a god, given limits to its capacity (a different argument, I appreciate).
Why, if his nature is perfect, would it not being able to change from perfect be seen a problem? and b) that doesn't change the morality's dependence upon the god.
I wasn't claiming otherwise.
Essentially, the point I'm making is that if a god cannot change, that inability represents a limitation on its capacity, which undermines the idea of a god that is 'omnipotent'.
The suggestion that god might already be perfect, and therefore not open to improvement isn't quite the same thing: he could have the capacity for change and not be exercising it, that's a different issue.
O.