Sword,
But that doesn’t make it wrong (the underlined bit). The question is, how do you establish something as being true, or not?
That's called a straw man: no-one says that that does make it wrong. What's actually being said is that your personal faith in "God" no more makes that god a fact for me than my personal faith in leprechauns makes leprechauns a fact for you. Faith may be personally satisfying, but in epistemic terms it's worthless.
If I said 2+2=10, this would be deemed illogical under base 10, and as you say, regardless of who you are, your personal opinions, your “faith”, etc. However, in base 3 (I wrongly said base 5 last time I used this), the statement is true. Therefore what appeared to be false is no longer false if certain parameters are changed.
I've corrected you on this several times now, yet you repeat the mistake nonetheless. Why?
You attempted to argue that truths can be denied because a "worldview" prevents their recognition, and used a maths example to make the point.
I rebutted this in two ways:
First, regardless of the worldview of the enquirer the burden of proof is still with the proponent. If you think, "but that's my faith" is useful for that purpose you give your self two big problems, namely explaining
why you think your faith is any more accurate
for me than just guessing would be, and how you would propose to eliminate anyone else's faith in anything else also providing a truth for you that you must accept on the same basis.
Second, the only worldview here in any case is logic and your maths example relies on it nonetheless. All you've done is to tinker with the starting conditions, but the conclusions are perfectly logical in either case. That's called a category error. If you want to make an analogy with religious belief, then you need to find an example that verifiably provides a different truth using a method
other than logic.
Let me illustrate in another way: How can someone who can see prove to a blind person (who has always been blind) what a lemon is? Does the fact that there is no way to do so mean the blind person should conclude that there is no such thing as a lemon? Does the blind person not have to accept by faith what they are being told, whilst having to take as evidence that which supports it, e.g. texture, taste, etc. How do they know that they aren’t being the victim of a hoax? Those who can see know because for them, the existence of a lemon is fact. To the blind person however, they are not in a position to verify that fact so have to accept it by faith. According to you, they shouldn’t take this approach, yet because we know that lemons exist, it would be seen as nonsensical for a blind person to conclude that lemons don’t exist because they cannot prove that lemons do exist.
That's another category error and it fails in so many ways that it's hard to know where to begin. Briefly though:
How can someone who can see prove to a blind person (who has always been blind) what a lemon is?
By providing him with the other sensory inputs that demonstrate "lemon". The blind person may not be able to visualise it, but he'll have plenty else to go on.
Does the fact that there is no way to do so mean the blind person should conclude that there is no such thing as a lemon?
Even if none of the other methods were available, that's a basic mistake in reasoning you keep making. The blind person (assuming he's capable of rational thought) wouldn't think, "there's no such thing as a lemon". Rather he'd think, "this person has provided me with no reason to think that there
is such a thing as a lemon", which is a very different matter and is analogous to a-theism.
Does the blind person not have to accept by faith what they are being told, whilst having to take as evidence that which supports it, e.g. texture, taste, etc.
Another category error. You're attempting to equate material characteristics (texture, taste etc) with a non-material deity. Try pixies or leprechauns or any other supernatural conjecture instead if you want to try this line.
How do they know that they aren’t being the victim of a hoax?
How do you?
Those who can see know because for them, the existence of a lemon is fact.
Continuance of the category error with some reification fallacy thrown in. Who are these people who "know" god, and
how do they know in a way that equates with knowing "lemon"?
To the blind person however, they are not in a position to verify that fact so have to accept it by faith.
No they don't. They accept it because there's enough replacement sensory input to enable them to model "lemon". "Faith" on the other hand is what's needed when there's no evidence to support you - it's what gets you from guessing to assertion with no intervening logic to bridge the gap.
According to you, they shouldn’t take this approach, yet because we know that lemons exist, it would be seen as nonsensical for a blind person to conclude that lemons don’t exist because they cannot prove that lemons do exist.
Yes, they shouldn't take this "approach" because it's irrelevant and epistemically worthless, and because your analogy fails before it even gets its trousers off in any case for the reasons I've explained. You can't simply assume "God" only some of us can't see it as analogous with the way that we understand "lemon" only a blind person can't see it.
Can you see now not only how desperately poor your thinking is, but why I stopped bothering to rebut in when you just repeat the same errors over again rather than address the rebuttals?
Anything?