I would like to know from Hillside whether he is using his own definition of benevolence when he talks about omnibenevolence. Does he want a celestial sugar daddy or gumball machine?
Am I expecting an answer? Nope.
My definition of benevolence is associated with kindness and compassion towards others. My idea of benevolence is to try to reduce suffering and pain in others and to show goodwill towards others. You might well have a totally different definition, but, as you have not yet described what you think it means, there is no way I could comment on your attitude to this.
So, for me, the characteristic of omnibenevolence in a God, especially when linked to the characteristics of omnipotence and omniscience, should result in clear, noticeable and regular evidence of benevolence on an overwhelming scale. I see no signs of any such evidence. For me, the world seems indifferent to human(or indeed any other kind of) suffering. Indeed, the only signs of benevolence that I can vouch for are those present in the animal world, and especially human beings, which suggests that they are characteristics which are evolutionary in nature.
This is just one reason why I see no reason to believe in gods, although I do accept that one could claim the existence of a very limited god who is still benevolent but unable to majorly alter the inexorable march of nature. The trouble is that the only claimed evidence for such a god would be his/her erratic, often trivial, interference through intercessory prayer. This doesn't exactly fill me with confidence, for, as with the often anecdotal accounts of miracles, there doesn't seem to be any way in which one can ascertain that any god has actually been involved at all.
Don't know about Blue. He'll answer for himself of course, but I just thought I would give you my take on it, however unwelcome you may find it.