Author Topic: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?  (Read 106967 times)

jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #125 on: June 06, 2015, 09:36:18 AM »
Does having the opinion that c is 123.456 m/s mean that you believe objective speed exists?
Not on its own. If however I believed that the speed is that and will be that independently of what anyone believes, then I believe that the speed is objective.

So what you believe is independent of what you believe? :)
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Synonym

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #126 on: June 06, 2015, 12:35:43 PM »
No, what I believe depends on what I believe. The subjects of my beliefs may not depend on my beliefs, and I may believe that they do not depend on my beliefs.

jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #127 on: June 06, 2015, 05:22:09 PM »
No, what I believe depends on what I believe. The subjects of my beliefs may not depend on my beliefs, and I may believe that they do not depend on my beliefs.

So there may be objective moral values the flaky five just got a little flakier. :)
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horsethorn

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #128 on: June 07, 2015, 06:16:11 PM »
Does having the opinion that c is 123.456 m/s mean that you believe objective speed exists?
Not on its own. If however I believed that the speed is that and will be that independently of what anyone believes, then I believe that the speed is objective.

How does having a belief differ from having an opinion?

That we have a method of verifying what I believe about the speed to be true or false, has nothing to do with the fact that I believe the matter to be independent of what I believe.

And you don't see the contradiction inherent in that?

And I am not contradicting myself by having an opinion on a matter which I believe is independent of what I believe.

No, but you are contradicting yourself if you then say that objective speed exists objectively because you believe it does.

ht
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Synonym

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #129 on: June 07, 2015, 06:31:27 PM »

And you don't see the contradiction inherent in that?
No because I can recognise that it is possible to form beliefs and opinions about matters that are unaffected by what is going on inside my head.

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No, but you are contradicting yourself if you then say that objective speed exists objectively because you believe it does.
Who has said that? Who has said that objective morality exists because someone believes it does?

jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #130 on: June 07, 2015, 06:51:42 PM »
Who has said that? Who has said that objective morality exists because someone believes it does?

Al:-

If someone agrees with me that an act, any act, is morally wrong and that this does not depend on how many people believe it to be so, they are logically bound to believe in the existence of objective morality.

Of course we pointed out that it does depend on one person, the one holding the opinion.
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Synonym

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #131 on: June 07, 2015, 06:57:02 PM »
That doesn't say that OM exists because of something a person believes. It says that the person ought to believe that OM exists because of something else they believe.

jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #132 on: June 07, 2015, 08:00:58 PM »
That doesn't say that OM exists because of something a person believes. It says that the person ought to believe that OM exists because of something else they believe.

I suppose, I don't think Al quite got past that 'someone' in his statement is a person, nonsensical.
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Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #133 on: June 07, 2015, 10:35:58 PM »
Hi Enki,
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Well, maybe you should look back again at the thread 'Objective morality exists!' where Alan made the point(repeatedly) that if one considered TACTDJFF to be morally wrong in all circumstances, then that person must also believe in an objective morality.


I may be wrong, but I think you are misinterpreting what Alan was trying to do with this – he certainly claims you are all misinterpreting him as he said above, whether I am too only he can confirm. I don’t think he is saying that if you think TACTDJFF is morally wrong in all circumstances it is an example of OM BECAUSE you think it, rather I reckon he is trying to say that TACTDJFF is an example of something that reveals our basic intuitions about morality such that we couldn’t ever consider it right even if there was only one person around to have a view on it, and that was the psychopath doing the torturing….in other words I think he was hoping this would get people to admit that opinions about TACTDJFF were irrelevant and it had to be considered wrong because of fundamental features inherent in the act itself. He then no doubt wanted to go on and say it is just this intuition – that moral wrongness is inherent in the qualities of the act itself rather than in anyone’s opinions about them that show the objective character of OM.

I think Alan didn’t help himself at times with the way he worded things. Further, I don’t think principles lie at the centre of morality at all, nevertheless this is my interpretation of Alan’s intention I think rather than interpreting Alan as arguing that the objectivity of morality derived from the fact that we all agree about it being wrong.

Synonym wrote:

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That doesn't say that OM exists because of something a person believes. It says that the person ought to believe that OM exists because of something else they believe.

Bang on...which is what Alan was trying to do I think.

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However, the point was repeatedly stressed by others that it would still only be opinion that objective morality exists unless it can demonstrated by some means independent of opinion. That's why so many people, including myself, have asked for a method which would demonstrate the objective existence of morality.

Depends on the suitably of the point made here. If it is, as HT has taken it, that the very fact our view on OM is our opinion in itself invalidates that it can be OM that’s just a mistake because there is no reason an opinion is only an opinion and that we can’t also have opinions about things that are also facts.
If you mean that his argument is invalid unless he can prove OM then this is also wrong because meta-ethics, just as metaphysics, are rarely if ever things that are capable of this sort of proof. Rather we have to test whether how well our theories of morality can explain morality as it is practiced. The nature and character of our moral thought.

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You then ask, can moral statements be facts? I would suggest, not in any objective sense, because there is no evidence that morality exists outside the animal brain, unless one counted as fact certain evolutionary/cultural/social tendencies which it may be possible to quantify.

Well there is ‘evidence’ if an assumption of fact is explicit in our moral discourse, which I have argued it is…it leaves you with either having to accept OM or to argue that all of our sense of morality is a distortion or an illusion. As a metaphysical question if you were looking for a stronger form of evidence equivalent to something in the natural sciences then you are just misappropriating standards of proof from one field of human inquiry to another where they don’t and couldn’t possibly apply.

Regards

DT

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #134 on: June 07, 2015, 10:39:55 PM »
Perhaps you have misunderstood. (Having an opinion that X is objectively morally good) is self-refuting, because 'objective', we agreed some time ago, means 'independent of opinion'.
How is that self-refuting? I am of the opinion that the speed of light is independent of my opinions. I believe it is unaffected by what I believe.

If you have an opinion on a matter this is not the same as saying that the matter is now dependent on your opinion.

Absolutely right.

HT wrote:
Quote
Perhaps you have misunderstood. (Having an opinion that X is objectively morally good) is self-refuting, because 'objective', we agreed some time ago, means 'independent of opinion'.

So 'having an opinion...' refutes (or cancels out, if your prefer) '...objectively...' It equates to saying 'subjectively objective', which is an oxymoron.

Same mistake again ‘m afraid HT. Something existing independent of opinion doesn’t mean we can’t have an opinion about it….it just means its not dependent on that opinion for its objectivity. You are still assuming that if we have an opinion of something is the same as something being only an opinion but this is not the case.

Regards

DT

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #135 on: June 07, 2015, 10:46:15 PM »
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Al tells us though his belief in a god is based on this argument, its one of the famous flaky five,

And

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So there may be objective moral values the flaky five just got a little flakier. 

Hmm.. whenever I see a phrase like the ‘flaky five’ from atheists it usually turns out to be vacuous rhetoric based on an a misrepresentation of what is being said, and it looks like we have just the same thing again here.

If by ‘flaky’ you mean the moral argument for God doesn’t work because it doesn’t prove God, then all your doing is making exactly the same mistake as you did when you talked about proving OM. Theistic arguments for God aren’t meant to be proof of God – even William Lane Craig who I am told is the target of the term ‘flaky five’ doesn’t think so and has said as much. No theistic philosophers’ think that it is irrational to come to atheist conclusions and that would be the case if there was a knock down argument for God they were ignoring.

The moral argument, like all the arguments for God is part of a cumulative case, and like all arguments its conclusion can only be drawn if you accept the premise. A huge number of people think that the character of morality is objective including the majority of philosophers, even though only a minority of philosophers are theists. (Numbers don’t make the argument correct of course – but they do show that some of the sillier accusations levelled in the last thread about people only believing in OM because they believe in God are simply incorrect).

If you were one of the many people who think morality has an objective character than the argument has force, if you don’t then it won’t. Some people argue that they have very different intuitions, some people are even total psychopaths with no care for morality at all… no one I think would expect such people to be persuaded by the moral argument. Nevertheless for a great many of us, theists and atheists alike, who do think our morality seems to be making truth claims that are truths we observe in morally relevant acts rather than something we invent, then it’s entirely relevant to ask how that can be the case. If God is the best explanation then this adds to the cumulative case for God….that’s the scope of the argument.

If you were expecting more….an out and out proof or something then your just misrepresenting the argument and indeed misrepresenting more widely the whole way we can make progress in philosophy more generally.

jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #136 on: June 08, 2015, 05:26:16 AM »
If you were expecting more….an out and out proof or something then your just misrepresenting the argument and indeed misrepresenting more widely the whole way we can make progress in philosophy more generally.

The argument is basic logic which even you should be able to comprehend. It is flaky as it has flaky premises and a flaky conclusion.
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Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #137 on: June 08, 2015, 07:04:16 AM »
Oh I can comprehend it fine, it has a valid form and a premise (a first one at least) that many people would accept and is compelling enough to be the dominant position for philosophers, atheist and theist alike (premise 1that is)...I guess the term 'flaky' sits better with a sneer than 'it's a valid arguement but I don't agree with its premise even though many do find good reason to accept it'.

jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #138 on: June 08, 2015, 07:15:23 AM »
Oh I can comprehend it fine, it has a valid form and a premise (a first one at least) that many people would accept and is compelling enough to be the dominant position for philosophers, atheist and theist alike (premise 1that is)...I guess the term 'flaky' sits better with a sneer than 'it's a valid arguement but I don't agree with its premise even though many do find good reason to accept it'.

The argument is as follows:-

1. If God does not exist, objective moral values do not exist.
2. Objective moral values do exist.
3. Therefore, God exists.

You think that premise one is a dominant position for atheist philosophers?

Quite happy to outline why I think it is flaky, I have posted at length on this argument before, I suggest you ask for clarification before labelling people in future.

Am I to assume you wish to defend this argument? You have been something of a cheerleader in the past.
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Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #139 on: June 08, 2015, 07:49:08 AM »
No it's been presented in a number of forms, what you present as premise 2 is what I refer to as premise 1.

And I would not defend yr other premise as written, but rather:

1. Objective moral values exist
2. God is the best explanation for objective moral values
3. Therefore objective moral values gives us reason to believe in God.

Its premise 2 as I have presented it where I would depart from Alan's version of it a little and not premise 1, which is what the last thread was entirely about.

Leonard James

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #140 on: June 08, 2015, 08:34:27 AM »

1. Objective moral values exist.

Unprovable affirmation.

Quote
2. God is the best explanation for objective moral values.

No he isn't. An unknown force is the best explanation for objective moral values.

Quote
3. Therefore objective moral values gives us reason to believe in God.

No they don't. Objective moral values give us reason to believe that some unknown power created them.




jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #141 on: June 08, 2015, 08:37:17 AM »
No it's been presented in a number of forms, what you present as premise 2 is what I refer to as premise 1.

And I would not defend yr other premise as written, but rather:

1. Objective moral values exist
2. God is the best explanation for objective moral values
3. Therefore objective moral values gives us reason to believe in God.

Its premise 2 as I have presented it where I would depart from Alan's version of it a little and not premise 1, which is what the last thread was entirely about.

Thanks. So lets start on (1); Can you give an example of an objective moral value and how you know its objective without resorting anyone's opinion? 
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horsethorn

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #142 on: June 08, 2015, 10:58:16 AM »

HT wrote:
Quote
Perhaps you have misunderstood. (Having an opinion that X is objectively morally good) is self-refuting, because 'objective', we agreed some time ago, means 'independent of opinion'.

So 'having an opinion...' refutes (or cancels out, if your prefer) '...objectively...' It equates to saying 'subjectively objective', which is an oxymoron.

Same mistake again ‘m afraid HT. Something existing independent of opinion doesn’t mean we can’t have an opinion about it….it just means its not dependent on that opinion for its objectivity. You are still assuming that if we have an opinion of something is the same as something being only an opinion but this is not the case.

Regards

DT

No, it doesn't mean we can't have an opinion on it, I agree. Good job that's not what I'm saying, isn't it?

Once again, you have misunderstood.

If I say that I have a negative positive number, the 'negative' and 'positive' cancel out, and the number is negative.

If I say that I have a subjective opinion on objective morality, the 'subjective' and 'objective' cancel out, and we are left with a subjective morality.

ht
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wigginhall

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #143 on: June 08, 2015, 02:15:11 PM »
DT - I am intrigued by one of your points above, where you talk about qualities in the act itself.  I just wonder what you mean by this, as it suggests that there is an act, along with its qualities, which exist independently.  This is starting to remind me of the tree falling in the forest and so on, but while we can conceive of an act which is not observed, we can't experience one.  I suppose then we are back to the issue of subjective/objective, and the oddity of something being wrong without anyone thinking so.
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jjohnjil

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #144 on: June 08, 2015, 02:58:54 PM »
DT - I am intrigued by one of your points above, where you talk about qualities in the act itself.  I just wonder what you mean by this, as it suggests that there is an act, along with its qualities, which exist independently.  This is starting to remind me of the tree falling in the forest and so on, but while we can conceive of an act which is not observed, we can't experience one.  I suppose then we are back to the issue of subjective/objective, and the oddity of something being wrong without anyone thinking so.

Is it clear what constitute's a moral act?  Is it an act which benefits or at least does least harm to other humans?  If so, why why would a god who created every living thing on Earth only consider harm to humans and not dags and cats, bears and leopards - or for that matter, grass and trees!

Objective morality must take into account the what, as well as the why. 

Enki

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #145 on: June 08, 2015, 04:31:42 PM »
Hi DT,

In response to your post 133:

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I may be wrong, but I think you are misinterpreting what Alan was trying to do with this – he certainly claims you are all misinterpreting him as he said above, whether I am too only he can confirm. I don’t think he is saying that if you think TACTDJFF is morally wrong in all circumstances it is an example of OM BECAUSE you think it,

But I didn't say this. I said that he suggested that anyone who thinks that TACTDJFF is morally wrong(or even morally right) in all circumstances should also logically accept that OM exists.(see his Mess 1312 in the original thread). I am very happy to accept that this is NOT a valid argument for OM in itself because it is simply opinion. I repeat that I have never stated that I believe TACTDJFF is wrong in all circumstances.

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rather I reckon he is trying to say that TACTDJFF is an example of something that reveals our basic intuitions about morality such that we couldn’t ever consider it right even if there was only one person around to have a view on it, and that was the psychopath doing the torturing….in other words I think he was hoping this would get people to admit that opinions about TACTDJFF were irrelevant and it had to be considered wrong because of fundamental features inherent in the act itself. He then no doubt wanted to go on and say it is just this intuition – that moral wrongness is inherent in the qualities of the act itself rather than in anyone’s opinions about them that show the objective character of OM.

I have understood this from the start. Indeed, at an early stage, Alan suggested this. He sees the idea of TACTDJFF as being wrong as 'blindingly obvious'(post 83). The problem with this approach is that whatever reasons Alan(or others) have given for justifying the immorality of TACTDJFF, they still remain opinions, and do not necessarily point to the existence of an objective morality which is extraneous to human beings. Furthermore, intuition, I would suggest, is no argument for the existence of OM. That is not to say that morality is not inherent in the act itself, but to suggest that this is so, rather than being a human construct, needs some more objective method for reaching that conclusion.

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I think Alan didn’t help himself at times with the way he worded things. Further, I don’t think principles lie at the centre of morality at all, nevertheless this is my interpretation of Alan’s intention I think rather than interpreting Alan as arguing that the objectivity of morality derived from the fact that we all agree about it being wrong.

Fair enough.

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Synonym wrote:

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That doesn't say that OM exists because of something a person believes. It says that the person ought to believe that OM exists because of something else they believe.

Bang on...which is what Alan was trying to do I think.

I really have no problem with this, as I have explained above. If a person believes something which fits with a definition of OM, then logically they should accept OM.


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Depends on the suitably of the point made here. If it is, as HT has taken it, that the very fact our view on OM is our opinion in itself invalidates that it can be OM that’s just a mistake because there is no reason an opinion is only an opinion and that we can’t also have opinions about things that are also facts. If you mean that his argument is invalid unless he can prove OM then this is also wrong because meta-ethics, just as metaphysics, are rarely if ever things that are capable of this sort of proof. Rather we have to test whether how well our theories of morality can explain morality as it is practiced. The nature and character of our moral thought.

On the first part of this paragraph I have already said this when I suggested in Mess 105 of this thread "Of course holding an opinion on anything could be true/false, accurate/inaccurate, valid/invalid."

On the second part, if we are to abandon the sort of proof that I (and others) request, then I would happily agree that our theories of morality have to be tested, and the nature and character of our moral thought have to be studied, and, as a most important rider, we have to also try to find the origins of our moral thought and behaviour.

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Well there is ‘evidence’ if an assumption of fact is explicit in our moral discourse, which I have argued it is…it leaves you with either having to accept OM or to argue that all of our sense of morality is a distortion or an illusion. As a metaphysical question if you were looking for a stronger form of evidence equivalent to something in the natural sciences then you are just misappropriating standards of proof from one field of human inquiry to another where they don’t and couldn’t possibly apply.

Well my own attitude to morality is as follows:

I see morality as a human construct based upon the need for social cohesion, driven by the qualities of empathy and altruism and and fashioned by culture, nurture and rationality. I would suggest that my personal morals are a result of these, and capable of wide interpretation given any particular 'moral' situation. I may well be wrong on any particular instance according to others who may take a contrary and opposing view. Indeed I may even change my moral stance if I am convinced that I should do so. I try to follow what I think is reasonable 'moral' behaviour according to the view of morality that I have described.

Sometimes I wish my first word was 'quote,' so that on my death bed, my last words could be 'end quote.'
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Synonym

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #146 on: June 08, 2015, 06:35:40 PM »
Once again, you have misunderstood.

If I say that I have a negative positive number, the 'negative' and 'positive' cancel out, and the number is negative.

If I say that I have a subjective opinion on objective morality, the 'subjective' and 'objective' cancel out, and we are left with a subjective morality.
Who is saying that they have a subjective opinion on objective morality though?

If I say that I am of the opinion that the speed of light is c and will be c irrespective of whether anyone agrees, I am offering an opinion, but not a subjective one. I am stating what I believe the truth of an objective matter to be.

If I say that I am of the opinion that TACTDJFF is wrong and will be wrong irrespective of whether anyone agrees, I am offering an opinion, but we do not know at this stage whether I am offering a subjective opinion or whether I am stating what I believe the truth of an objective matter to be.

In order to say that offering an opinion on X being objective is self-refuting, you first need to presuppose that the opinion is of the subjective variety.

jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #147 on: June 08, 2015, 06:52:58 PM »
If I say that I am of the opinion that the speed of light is c and will be c irrespective of whether anyone agrees, I am offering an opinion, but not a subjective one. I am stating what I believe the truth of an objective matter to be.

Opinion is always subjective, your opinion of c will cease to exist when you do.
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Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #148 on: June 08, 2015, 09:55:14 PM »
 
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Quote from: Dryghtons Toe on Today at 07:49:08 AM

1. Objective moral values exist.

Unprovable affirmation.
Unprovable yes but grounded in our moral experience nonetheless.

Quote
Quote
2. God is the best explanation for objective moral values.

No he isn't. An unknown force is the best explanation for objective moral values.
An unknowable force with intention and the ability to define moral truth...that's what we mean by God or at least part of it.

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #149 on: June 08, 2015, 09:56:05 PM »
Quote
Thanks. So lets start on (1); Can you give an example of an objective moral value and how you know its objective without resorting anyone's opinion?

If morality is objective then every moral judgement that is correct is an example....so if discrimination against people for being gay is wrong its objectively wrong. You can't read OM like a list but we can make progress towards discovering it. How we do that is dependent on the account we gave of how OM exists. So if OM is grounded in God for example part of discovering OM will be deepening our experience of God and our understanding of his character and intention. How successful we are at this will define how successful we are at recognising OM.