Author Topic: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?  (Read 106338 times)

Synonym

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #175 on: June 10, 2015, 11:07:44 AM »
The contradiction is in the fact that it *is* an opinion, and yet that opinion is the basis of something which is defined to be independent of opinion.
That opinion is the basis of a further opinion held about that something (which is defined to be independent of opinion). It is not the basis of the something itself.

horsethorn

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #176 on: June 10, 2015, 12:30:26 PM »
The contradiction is in the fact that it *is* an opinion, and yet that opinion is the basis of something which is defined to be independent of opinion.
That opinion is the basis of a further opinion held about that something (which is defined to be independent of opinion). It is not the basis of the something itself.

So it is doubly subjective, then.

ht
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wigginhall

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #177 on: June 10, 2015, 01:23:44 PM »
Some of the analogies being used don't help me.  For example, the use of Obama, and my opinion that he exists, can be set against my experiences, which convince me that he exists, such as film of him, TV, and so on.  In fact, it is likely that I could go to a meeting to see him speak;  so my opinion exists within that context, in fact, is born out of it.  How does this connect with OM, which I cannot experience, cannot locate, etc.  OK, I can think about it - then what?
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Nearly Sane

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #178 on: June 10, 2015, 02:26:46 PM »
Some of the analogies being used don't help me.  For example, the use of Obama, and my opinion that he exists, can be set against my experiences, which convince me that he exists, such as film of him, TV, and so on.  In fact, it is likely that I could go to a meeting to see him speak;  so my opinion exists within that context, in fact, is born out of it.  How does this connect with OM, which I cannot experience, cannot locate, etc.  OK, I can think about it - then what?

I think the issue here is whether it makes any difference about how we talk about things. It was the reason I would say why I found synonym' s posts about the way we talk about the marmite question as backing up jakswan' s point. If I state that I think marmite tastes good and will taste good no matter what anyone else says, it neither posits OT (objective taste) nor does it mean that talking about objective taste makes any real sense.

In the absence of any method using this sort of it is implied by the utterance approach doesn't really advance anything. That we are still going round and round on it, and in part because I don't think we are even clear what Alan's argument is, makes me inclined to skip a lot of posts on here. I really struggle to see what OM can mean for exactly the same reason that Synonym thinks is a problem with OT. Any judgement seems bounded by having a personal concept of good and any societal norm derived from that seems an element if society and hence by nature subjective, and not in the light of an intersubjective methodology to establish it as happens in science but simply by whatever means allows for a dominant opinion.

« Last Edit: June 10, 2015, 02:44:13 PM by Nearly Sane »

wigginhall

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #179 on: June 10, 2015, 02:56:06 PM »
NS - yes, I think for me it has become almost meaningless, so that the words 'objective' and 'morality' resemble a kind of indeterminate jelly, which might contain anything, or nothing.
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horsethorn

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #180 on: June 10, 2015, 02:59:46 PM »
NS - yes, I think for me it has become almost meaningless, so that the words 'objective' and 'morality' resemble a kind of indeterminate jelly, which might contain anything, or nothing.

Well, clearly OM is quantum ;)

ht
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Nearly Sane

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #181 on: June 10, 2015, 03:09:11 PM »
NS - yes, I think for me it has become almost meaningless, so that the words 'objective' and 'morality' resemble a kind of indeterminate jelly, which might contain anything, or nothing.

Well, clearly OM is quantum ;)

ht
Epigenetic quantum

horsethorn

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #182 on: June 10, 2015, 03:22:55 PM »
NS - yes, I think for me it has become almost meaningless, so that the words 'objective' and 'morality' resemble a kind of indeterminate jelly, which might contain anything, or nothing.

Well, clearly OM is quantum ;)

ht
Epigenetic quantum

Yes, but is it philosophically materialist epigenetic quantum?

ht
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wigginhall

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #183 on: June 10, 2015, 04:02:24 PM »
NS - yes, I think for me it has become almost meaningless, so that the words 'objective' and 'morality' resembles a kind of indeterminate jelly, which might contain anything, or nothing.

Well, clearly OM is quantum ;)

ht

Schrodinger's morality, it's both subjective and objective, until certain Christians start discussing it, when it collapses into a hideous inchoate blob.  In fact, the Blob!
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Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #184 on: June 10, 2015, 09:35:09 PM »
 
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Quote from: Dryghtons Toe on Today at 07:18:50 AM
From HT:
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Nope. It cancels out because you have subjective opinion of something allegedly objective.

I have the subjective opinion that Barak Obama exists as an objective being. On your logic that must cancel out that fact that he exists and mean that he is just a figment of my imagination then and will no doubt cease to exist.

Once again, you have misunderstood.

It's nothing to do with the 'target'. You could have any opinion you like about the existence of Barack. Your opinion would be irrelevant to that, as we have a means of determining his existence.

You're back to verification again!!!....yet you've said before and in this same post that:

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Quote from: Dryghtons Toe on Today at 07:18:50 AM
Whether or not we can verify its objectivity on the other hand is a different question entirely and would not be relevant to making my belief ''self-refuting'. Objective existence is an ontological property... why would you possibly think verification made a difference to that??

I don't. See above.
It's nothing to do with the existence of the thing, it's about claiming that an opinion can be objective.

Yet that's exactly what you're doing. You keep talking about opinion being irrelevant as this that has any meaning in this debate. Whether you consider it irrelevant or not is besides the point. You've already said you agree that our opinion is always subjective, so my opinion of Barak Obama (BO) existing is still my subjective opinion whether you can verify him or not or whether or not you deem it relevant. It doesn't cancel out BO existing in reality because he is the target of my subjective belief not the belief itself. Same with OM, I may believe it is objective, and my belief is a subjective belief, but it doesn't cancel out OM because OM is the target of my belief and is no way dependent on it or my beliefs subjectivity for its (the targets) objectivity. You're right that I can't definitively demonstrate it, but that wouldn't make a difference to it being self-refuting...as I asked before, why would you think it would do that?


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The contradiction is in the fact that it *is* an opinion, and yet that opinion is the basis of something which is defined to be independent of opinion.

No its absolutely not the basis for it. The Objectivity of OM has nothing to do with my belief about it. If morality is Objective its objective whether or not I or anyone else thinks it is.

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You could also have any opinion you liked about the existence of trees, cars, houses, cups, clouds... Your opinion would be irrelevant to that, as we have a means of determining their existence.

Again so what? relevant or otherwise its still an opinion. You seem to think that the people who think morality is objective think its objectivity is dependent on what we believe but it isn't. We think that if we are consistent about what we believe then facts about our morality mean we should believe it is objective, but we don't think that its objectivity in itself is dependent on our or anyone else's belief.

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You could also have any opinion you liked about the existence of objective morality... Your opinion would be irrelevant to that, as we have a means of determining its existence. Oh wait, no we don't, because despite the number of times a method has been requested, one has not been forthcoming.

Again you seem to think a method of verification makes a difference to the claim of something being ontologically objective but you never explain why. You say you don't when challenged about it but keep repeatedly making references to it as if it made a difference....

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It is my opinion that tea tastes nice. In my opinion, it has always tasted nice and will always taste nice, regardless of whether anyone agrees with me.

It is my opinion that TACTDJFF is wrong, it has always been wrong and will always be wrong, regardless of whether anyone agrees with me.

According to Alan's argument, I believe in both an objective morality and an objective taste.

No you don't because the claim that tea tastes nice is a claim that 'you think teas tastes nice'...taste as a subjective state is a claim about your disposition towards tea. It isn't contradicted by someone thinking it is not nice. But when Alan says TACTDJFF is wrong, he is not claiming 'wrong' means anything like 'I don't like it but its ok if you like it', he's saying it is wrong for everyone whatever their 'taste' may be for causing pain, and he's saying that everyone else who also thinks its wrong for everyone (i.e. not at all like our taste in tea) should, to be consistent, recognise that this universality is indicative of an objective feature of morality that makes it quite distinct from matters of taste like liking tea.

 
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If Alan doesn't think that, why does he always begin with someone's opinion?

Hes trying to show that some beliefs you already have about morality require you to accept other beliefs

That's lovely, but they are beliefs/opinions, and therefore are subjective.

Yes they are that's right, but the target of the belief isn't, and in this case the target of the belief is the ontological state of morality's objectivity and that is not dependent on my belief for its objectivity.

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See above.

I did, you just fell back to relying on verification again without justification, despite also admitting that verification made no difference to objectivity.
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It's nothing to do with the existence of the thing, it's about claiming that an opinion can be objective.

Which no one is doing. We are claiming the target of an opinion (in this case the objectivity of morality) can be objective and that its objectivity is independent of our belief or our ability to verify it or whether you or anyone else consider it 'relevant'.

« Last Edit: June 10, 2015, 09:50:38 PM by Dryghtons Toe »

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #185 on: June 10, 2015, 09:38:14 PM »
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Quote from: Dryghtons Toe on Today at 07:16:09 AM
No I'm one of those 'when someone asks a question with a silly assumption embed with it, explain why its a silly assumption rather than let them go on talking drivel types.

Look here: Mirror.

what a fabulous response! Here's another one you can use.

I say "look here Jakswan, Scott Adams drew you into the latest Dilbert cartoon"

http://i.imgur.com/XgtJTMj.jpg

Now you copy the post and link and then say "no thats you that is," and then all your atheist  chums can laugh and laugh and think how clever and funny you are :D



Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #186 on: June 10, 2015, 09:41:05 PM »
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Some of the analogies being used don't help me.  For example, the use of Obama, and my opinion that he exists, can be set against my experiences, which convince me that he exists, such as film of him, TV, and so on.  In fact, it is likely that I could go to a meeting to see him speak;  so my opinion exists within that context, in fact, is born out of it.  How does this connect with OM, which I cannot experience, cannot locate, etc.  OK, I can think about it - then what?

The point of BO isn't that its broadly analogous with OM, its simply to point out that the objectivity of the target of our subjective opinion is not in any way 'refuted' by the subjectivity of my opinion.

Any target will serve as an example...something unverifiable like a belief in the 'objective existence of other universes would' do just as well.

It would only make a difference if you somehow thought verification could effect the ontological state of objectivity that something had, but as I asked HT, why would we think that?

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I think the issue here is whether it makes any difference about how we talk about things. It was the reason I would say why I found synonym' s posts about the way we talk about the marmite question as backing up jakswan' s point. If I state that I think marmite tastes good and will taste good no matter what anyone else says, it neither posits OT (objective taste) nor does it mean that talking about objective taste makes any real sense.
See comments on HTs post re liking tea!

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Any judgement seems bounded by having a personal concept of good and any societal norm derived from that seems an element if society and hence by nature subjective
Any moral judgement we make WILL be our subjective opinion just like any judgement we might make about other universes existing will be our subjective opinion, yet both of these opinions have a subject which (the realist would argue) can be right or wrong independent of my opinion. Whether or not we can verify them with a methodology doesn't alter this either way.

Regards

DT

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #187 on: June 10, 2015, 09:48:34 PM »
Enki,

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I don't have anything against the idea of OM at all, in the same way that I don't have any problem with the existence of a God.

I agree that OM does not seem to lend itself be demonstrated by any naturalistic method and  I would agree with you that OM isn't invalidated by the lack of an objective method.  But it isn't supported either. So, what we seem to be left with is intuitive assumption. William Lane Craig seems to state this when he asserts 'Objective moral values and duties do exist' in the third of his 'Five arguments for God' (http://www.reasonablefaith.org/the-new-atheism-and-five-arguments-for-god), and backs it up by simply saying that people believe that this is true.

The argument for OM doesn't just  say it exists because people think it, it says the assumption of objectivity is implicit in our moral discourse and without it we can't maintain a sense of morality that is anything like morality as it is practiced.

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Unfortunately the trouble as far as the intuitive approach goes, I personally don't feel that OM exists just as I feel that no God exists. However, even my own intuitions do not satisfy me, because I see so many examples of the intuitive approach alone leading to contradictory assumptions. So, for me, the intuitive approach is beset with difficulties.

Talking about an 'intuitive approach' makes it sound like there is an alternative to trusting our intuitions as the basis of our metaphysical beliefs, but of course there isn't. Empiricism for example has its own assumptions at its base so to pose it as an alternative is to having to trust some basic intuitions is to miss the intuitions we all stand upon, whatever our beliefs. I have no problem with the fact that some people disagree with me though, I only have a problem with the type of atheists who think that anyone who doesn't share their point of view is irrational.

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Now if we take the example of TACTDJFF, on all sorts of levels(including the intuitive approach) I see this as morally wrong, but only because I am a human being. If no human beings existed, and we substitute other entities for human beings in the original example, my judgement of right/wrong becomes meaningless and I see no reason to imbue the idea of TACTDJFF in this case with any moral dimension at all. Only as a human being does the idea of morality seem  meaningful. Hence, I suggest that morality is a human construct, although I would accept that certain other animal species show some forms of proto-morality certainly.

I don't share Alan's trust in moral principles and if another species had different capacities to us, it may be that ideas like pain are meaningless so how we might apply objective moral truths like justice or compassion might be diffenrence,..but then the term torture wouldn't really apply either. Torture means consciously and deliberately inflicting suffering, and in this case it’s for someone else’s enjoyment…..so for this description to apply we are necessarily assuming that these other beings are at the very least centres of consciousness with a capacity to suffer and enjoy, who can act in a self-directed intentional manner. If this description does apply then I can’t see any reason why moral judgements wouldn’t apply because the situation is bursting with morally relevant features. If you do then I’d like to hear why.

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Alternatively, to convince me that OM exists, or that there are moral truths associated with particular acts, some form of demonstration backing up such a belief((or opinion) is needed that this is so. As none seems to be forthcoming, then I am left with what I find to be compelling evidence that humanity's focus on the moral dimension is in fact the result of evolutionary traits.

I’d 'demonstrate' it (or at least make a justified argument for it) by pointing out that our moral practice has a range of features that we can only adequate make sense of if  it is objective – our morality assumes truth even at the deepest levels; we justify our moral judgements in the same manner as we do for other factual claims - on features of the situation we are judging as opposed to our personal preferences that we might appeal to in liking tea; on the  phenomenology of our moral experience, which is such that we perceive morally relevant features as implicit in situations rather than merely a deriving from our own non-cognitive reactions, and morality imposes constraints and demands on us despite and sometimes quite opposed to what we may desire to do. On the previous thread I delved into the example of when we change our moral opinions – including at times our most basic moral principles – this can be a major and traumatic event in people’s lives which we agonise over and are quite fundamental to our self-identity. When we make such changes in basic views the crucial feature is that we do so because we recognise our old views were wrong. If morality was invention we can’t adequately make sense of these most basic features of the role of ethics in our life….yet these aren’t just peripheral aspects of our lives we can just discard, they are among the most profound and defining aspects of the human condition.

 As for evolution, neither a realist nor an anti-realist about morality need disagree that it is through our evolution that morality develops, but they would both have a different interpretation of how it develops in that context. While you assume that it means it’s something invented for survival the realist would simply say that it is via our evolution that we develop the capacities to discover moral truth. In other words the evolutionary and social context of morality is no challenge to realism in the slightest and only seems like one if you smuggle in a whole bag of additional anti-realist assumptions in your argument to start with.

I probably won't be able to reply again for a few days now.

Regards

DT


Enki

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #188 on: June 10, 2015, 10:52:47 PM »
Hi DT,

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I probably won't be able to reply again for a few days now.

No problem.  It will give me time to digest what you have said.

Also  my internet connection  only gives me intermittent access to this forum while working normally with all other sites.
 :) 
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jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #189 on: June 11, 2015, 08:40:55 AM »
Quote
Quote from: Dryghtons Toe on Today at 07:16:09 AM
No I'm one of those 'when someone asks a question with a silly assumption embed with it, explain why its a silly assumption rather than let them go on talking drivel types.

Look here: Mirror.

what a fabulous response! Here's another one you can use.

I say "look here Jakswan, Scott Adams drew you into the latest Dilbert cartoon"

http://i.imgur.com/XgtJTMj.jpg

Now you copy the post and link and then say "no thats you that is," and then all your atheist  chums can laugh and laugh and think how clever and funny you are :D

No, I did note how this allowed you to evade the other point made in that post though.

'If you think your account of morality is objective then I'm happy for you, if you want to convince me of this as well its time to come up with some decent arguments.'
Doubt is not a pleasant condition, but certainty is absurd.
- Voltaire

jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #190 on: June 11, 2015, 08:49:52 AM »
he's saying it is wrong for everyone whatever their 'taste' may be for causing pain, and he's saying that everyone else who also thinks its wrong for everyone (i.e. not at all like our taste in tea) should, to be consistent, recognise that this universality is indicative of an objective feature of morality that makes it quite distinct from matters of taste like liking tea.

No, I can say everyone should vote Lib Dems but still accept others have different opinions and accept voting is subjective.
Doubt is not a pleasant condition, but certainty is absurd.
- Voltaire

horsethorn

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #191 on: June 11, 2015, 03:38:57 PM »
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Quote from: Dryghtons Toe on Today at 07:18:50 AM
From HT:
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Nope. It cancels out because you have subjective opinion of something allegedly objective.

I have the subjective opinion that Barak Obama exists as an objective being. On your logic that must cancel out that fact that he exists and mean that he is just a figment of my imagination then and will no doubt cease to exist.

Once again, you have misunderstood.

It's nothing to do with the 'target'. You could have any opinion you like about the existence of Barack. Your opinion would be irrelevant to that, as we have a means of determining his existence.

You're back to verification again!!!....yet you've said before and in this same post that:

Quote
Quote from: Dryghtons Toe on Today at 07:18:50 AM
Whether or not we can verify its objectivity on the other hand is a different question entirely and would not be relevant to making my belief ''self-refuting'. Objective existence is an ontological property... why would you possibly think verification made a difference to that??

I don't. See above.
It's nothing to do with the existence of the thing, it's about claiming that an opinion can be objective.

Yet that's exactly what you're doing. You keep talking about opinion being irrelevant as this that has any meaning in this debate. Whether you consider it irrelevant or not is besides the point. You've already said you agree that our opinion is always subjective, so my opinion of Barak Obama (BO) existing is still my subjective opinion whether you can verify him or not or whether or not you deem it relevant. It doesn't cancel out BO existing in reality because he is the target of my subjective belief not the belief itself. Same with OM, I may believe it is objective, and my belief is a subjective belief, but it doesn't cancel out OM because OM is the target of my belief and is no way dependent on it or my beliefs subjectivity for its (the targets) objectivity. You're right that I can't definitively demonstrate it, but that wouldn't make a difference to it being self-refuting...as I asked before, why would you think it would do that?


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The contradiction is in the fact that it *is* an opinion, and yet that opinion is the basis of something which is defined to be independent of opinion.

No its absolutely not the basis for it. The Objectivity of OM has nothing to do with my belief about it. If morality is Objective its objective whether or not I or anyone else thinks it is.

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You could also have any opinion you liked about the existence of trees, cars, houses, cups, clouds... Your opinion would be irrelevant to that, as we have a means of determining their existence.

Again so what? relevant or otherwise its still an opinion. You seem to think that the people who think morality is objective think its objectivity is dependent on what we believe but it isn't. We think that if we are consistent about what we believe then facts about our morality mean we should believe it is objective, but we don't think that its objectivity in itself is dependent on our or anyone else's belief.

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You could also have any opinion you liked about the existence of objective morality... Your opinion would be irrelevant to that, as we have a means of determining its existence. Oh wait, no we don't, because despite the number of times a method has been requested, one has not been forthcoming.

Again you seem to think a method of verification makes a difference to the claim of something being ontologically objective but you never explain why. You say you don't when challenged about it but keep repeatedly making references to it as if it made a difference....

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It is my opinion that tea tastes nice. In my opinion, it has always tasted nice and will always taste nice, regardless of whether anyone agrees with me.

It is my opinion that TACTDJFF is wrong, it has always been wrong and will always be wrong, regardless of whether anyone agrees with me.

According to Alan's argument, I believe in both an objective morality and an objective taste.

No you don't because the claim that tea tastes nice is a claim that 'you think teas tastes nice'...taste as a subjective state is a claim about your disposition towards tea. It isn't contradicted by someone thinking it is not nice. But when Alan says TACTDJFF is wrong, he is not claiming 'wrong' means anything like 'I don't like it but its ok if you like it', he's saying it is wrong for everyone whatever their 'taste' may be for causing pain, and he's saying that everyone else who also thinks its wrong for everyone (i.e. not at all like our taste in tea) should, to be consistent, recognise that this universality is indicative of an objective feature of morality that makes it quite distinct from matters of taste like liking tea.

 
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If Alan doesn't think that, why does he always begin with someone's opinion?

Hes trying to show that some beliefs you already have about morality require you to accept other beliefs

That's lovely, but they are beliefs/opinions, and therefore are subjective.

Yes they are that's right, but the target of the belief isn't, and in this case the target of the belief is the ontological state of morality's objectivity and that is not dependent on my belief for its objectivity.

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See above.

I did, you just fell back to relying on verification again without justification, despite also admitting that verification made no difference to objectivity.
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It's nothing to do with the existence of the thing, it's about claiming that an opinion can be objective.

Which no one is doing. We are claiming the target of an opinion (in this case the objectivity of morality) can be objective and that its objectivity is independent of our belief or our ability to verify it or whether you or anyone else consider it 'relevant'.

I'm not sure whether I am not explaining this very well, or whether you are misunderstanding me still.

"No you don't because the claim that tea tastes nice is a claim that 'you think teas tastes nice'...taste as a subjective state is a claim about your disposition towards tea. It isn't contradicted by someone thinking it is not nice. But when Alan says TACTDJFF is wrong, he is not claiming 'wrong' means anything like 'I don't like it but its ok if you like it', he's saying it is wrong for everyone whatever their 'taste' may be for causing pain, and he's saying that everyone else who also thinks its wrong for everyone (i.e. not at all like our taste in tea) should, to be consistent, recognise that this universality is indicative of an objective feature of morality that makes it quite distinct from matters of taste like liking tea."

My claim that I think tea tastes nice is exactly equivalent to my claim that TACTDJFF is wrong. It is my opinion on both matters.

As you say, my claim about tea is not refuted by someone else not liking tea, and neither is my claim about TACTDJFF refuted by someone disagreeing.

If Alan is, as you say, claiming that when he says that TACTDJFF is wrong means that "he's saying it is wrong for everyone whatever their 'taste' may be for causing pain", then he is making a claim of objectivity. However, like my view of tea, it is his opinion and therefore the claim of objectivity fails (by definition).

It may be that there is an objective taste and/or an objective morality, but it can't be asserted into existence through "he's saying it is wrong for everyone whatever their 'taste' may be for causing pain".

It may also be that my claim about tea and Alan's about TACTDJFF do actually match the relevant objective taste/morality, but that would be coincidence rather than either of us identifying the OT/OM. And views of tea varying or views of TACTDJFF agreeing are just that - agreement or lack of it; they can't be evidence for OT/OM because that's ad populum.

Haven't got much time right now, might have another go at this later.

ht
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wigginhall

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #192 on: June 11, 2015, 03:58:57 PM »
I'm trying to line this up in the right order, in order to do it justice.  The objectivity of morality isn't determined by our beliefs, but by aspects of certain actions, which have apparently objective aspects, e.g. cruelty.   Also, the way we arrive at moral judgments indicates that we are referring to something objective, for example, it's difficult to change your mind about morality.

Is that a fair summary?   It still seems vitiated to me by involving feelings - for example, we often dislike cruelty, so you could argue that our sense of wrongness reflects that.  In fact, the word 'cruel' is intrinsically judgmental.

Is there something wrong about which we don't have feelings, and the wrongness of which is inherent in the act itself?  But here, I pause at that word 'itself'.   What does that mean?  It seems to complete a circle - things in themselves are objective.  Well, duh.
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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #193 on: June 12, 2015, 08:11:56 PM »
Hi DT,

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The argument for OM doesn't just  say it exists because people think it, it says the assumption of objectivity is implicit in our moral discourse and without it we can't maintain a sense of morality that is anything like morality as it is practiced.

I accept that this is a reasonable argument for those who have a fundamental belief in OM. However, I would counter that by saying that the fact that I have an instinctive and emotional sense of morality says nothing about it having an objective existence. I suggest that it is just as reasonable to suggest that natural selection has built us this way in order to develop strategies that are tailored to the social world we live in.

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Talking about an 'intuitive approach' makes it sound like there is an alternative to trusting our intuitions as the basis of our metaphysical beliefs, but of course there isn't. Empiricism for example has its own assumptions at its base so to pose it as an alternative is to having to trust some basic intuitions is to miss the intuitions we all stand upon, whatever our beliefs. I have no problem with the fact that some people disagree with me though, I only have a problem with the type of atheists who think that anyone who doesn't share their point of view is irrational.

The fact we are inclined to trust our intuitions as the basis of our metaphysical beliefs is coloured by the fact that those same intuitions can vary widely. Therefore I don't  feel that this is a justification that those basic intuitions(including my own) are necessarily correct. Thus, for myself, I can happily assume that the world around me is absolutely real for all practical purposes, but it does not mean that it might not be some form of highly complex illusion. Science, as you intimate, is clearly founded on the belief that the natural world exists and can be understood and manipulated. For my own part, it seems to be a basic part of my nature that I am sceptical about all manner of things, and will only be convinced when I am faced with clear evidence.  Incidentally, as an atheist, I have never been of the opinion that those who do not share my point of view are therefore irrational. That sounds like quite an 'irrational' approach.

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I don't share Alan's trust in moral principles and if another species had different capacities to us, it may be that ideas like pain are meaningless so how we might apply objective moral truths like justice or compassion might be diffenrence,..but then the term torture wouldn't really apply either. Torture means consciously and deliberately inflicting suffering, and in this case it’s for someone else’s enjoyment…..so for this description to apply we are necessarily assuming that these other beings are at the very least centres of consciousness with a capacity to suffer and enjoy, who can act in a self-directed intentional manner. If this description does apply then I can’t see any reason why moral judgements wouldn’t apply because the situation is bursting with morally relevant features. If you do then I’d like to hear why.

My position would be as follows:

If other entities were involved in Alan's scenario, and asuming no humans existed, then I would consider my own present views, which are entirely from a human perspective, to be superfluous. There is no way that I could feel I should or could impose my own views on such an hypothetical situation.

If, on the other hand, we take Alan's scenario as is, then, of course I would feel TACTTDJFF to be wrong, as I have already said. However, I suggest that humans do often react in this way to the immediacy of such a situation. If one changes the parameters only slightly, then it is not so clear cut at all. For instance, if one changes it a little to 'someone else torturing a child to death in order to give us pleasure' then it does not seem so clear cut. Examples of this approach might be the prevailing atitudes to child labour in the brickyards, the coal mines etc. during the 19th Century when large swathes of the population did not feel so incensed about the immorality of such a situation, or even today, when child labour has been used in different parts of the world to satisfy our enjoyment of fashionable clothing.

I am of the opinion that a scenario is, of itself, neither moral nor immoral. It seems to depend on how we, as human beings, view it. For instance, on a personal level, someone who has recently been bereaved, might react with strong emotions to some particular action or object which reminds them of their loved one. This does not mean that the action or object has some intrinsic quality associated with this emotion, it simply means for that person it becomes a trigger to set off the emotion. For another person it may have no such meaning. Morality, it seems to me, is something like this writ large. By that, I mean that the vast majority of human beings react in roughly similar ways to particular acts, either with abhorrence or commendation, and we give these feelings the names morality/immorality because we think that others should also react as we do.

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I’d 'demonstrate' it (or at least make a justified argument for it) by pointing out that our moral practice has a range of features that we can only adequate make sense of if  it is objective – our morality assumes truth even at the deepest levels; we justify our moral judgements in the same manner as we do for other factual claims - on features of the situation we are judging as opposed to our personal preferences that we might appeal to in liking tea; on the  phenomenology of our moral experience, which is such that we perceive morally relevant features as implicit in situations rather than merely a deriving from our own non-cognitive reactions, and morality imposes constraints and demands on us despite and sometimes quite opposed to what we may desire to do. On the previous thread I delved into the example of when we change our moral opinions – including at times our most basic moral principles – this can be a major and traumatic event in people’s lives which we agonise over and are quite fundamental to our self-identity. When we make such changes in basic views the crucial feature is that we do so because we recognise our old views were wrong. If morality was invention we can’t adequately make sense of these most basic features of the role of ethics in our life….yet these aren’t just peripheral aspects of our lives we can just discard, they are among the most profound and defining aspects of the human condition.

The trouble I find with this approach is that, apart from our general moral feelings, our moral practices can deviate quite strongly according to how we rationalise them in any given situation. Apart from the most generalised moral attitudes(which I would explain through feelings such as empathy, sympathy, social cohesion etc) we can make contrary 'moral' decisions according to how we analyse a situation(E.G. assisted suicide, abortion).

As far as your idea of the trauma of changing our moral opinions goes, I quite agree with you when you say that it can be intensely traumatic. However, changing all sorts of things in our lives, when we change our deep seated outlooks, can be traumatic too. We may be in the process of changing our views of another person, which may release similar agonised feelings. We may realise(through illness, for instance) that what we thought was an entirely adequate lifestyle has to change dramatically for us to remain healthy. This may induce its own major mental problems as we go through a period when we lose our self confidence. What I am saying is that changes in our moral attitudes, as with other things which are deeply ingrained in our lives and in our thinking, can have an understandable traumatic effect on us. If a person, after an intense period of soul searching , changes from being a theist to an atheist, I would not suggest that this demonstrates the truth or otherwise of atheism, so I'm not sure why a person changing their fundamental moral attitudes demonstrates the actual existence of OM.

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As for evolution, neither a realist nor an anti-realist about morality need disagree that it is through our evolution that morality develops, but they would both have a different interpretation of how it develops in that context. While you assume that it means it’s something invented for survival the realist would simply say that it is via our evolution that we develop the capacities to discover moral truth. In other words the evolutionary and social context of morality is no challenge to realism in the slightest and only seems like one if you smuggle in a whole bag of additional anti-realist assumptions in your argument to start with.

I'm hoping that we may have some measure of agreement here. I would happily accept that one can positively engage with the idea of evolution playing its part in developing moral attitudes while suggesting that there is an objective morality which underlies it, just as it is quite possible for a person who takes on board evolution to also believe in the existence of a god. No problem at all. For me, however, I see no evidence of such(either God or OM), so I see no reason to change my opinions on either count. This is very different to trying to prove OM is wrong. I just take a different view.
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Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #194 on: June 14, 2015, 09:42:03 PM »
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No, I did note how this allowed you to evade the other point made in that post though.

'If you think your account of morality is objective then I'm happy for you, if you want to convince me of this as well its time to come up with some decent arguments.'

Be assured I have no desire to convince you of anything, with your record I can think of nothing that would make me doubt my beliefs more than knowing you agreed with me. Nevertheless, its a little Ironic that you accuse me of evading answering questions when I've gone into the issue to at least as much detail as anyone else on either side, and seeing as by contrast even when we take your contributions word for word in the context it was said, you end up crying that this is apparently a 'straw man'. Perhaps this is just another of your 'no one said anything about proof ....oh wait, I did..' moments.

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No, I can say everyone should vote Lib Dems but still accept others have different opinions and accept voting is subjective.

That's because voting is subjective is a different sense to the one we have been discussing meaning something we think should be up to us individually. Nevertheless the reason we vote is usually because we think that the Lib Dems will govern better and that there policies will be more successful than others, and these are factual questions...ones we can't know the answer too with any certainty to be sure as politics and economics are complex and the answers will only be seen in time but they are factual claims nonetheless.

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #195 on: June 14, 2015, 09:42:45 PM »
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I'm not sure whether I am not explaining this very well, or whether you are misunderstanding me still.

"No you don't because the claim that tea tastes nice is a claim that 'you think teas tastes nice'...taste as a subjective state is a claim about your disposition towards tea. It isn't contradicted by someone thinking it is not nice. But when Alan says TACTDJFF is wrong, he is not claiming 'wrong' means anything like 'I don't like it but its ok if you like it', he's saying it is wrong for everyone whatever their 'taste' may be for causing pain, and he's saying that everyone else who also thinks its wrong for everyone (i.e. not at all like our taste in tea) should, to be consistent, recognise that this universality is indicative of an objective feature of morality that makes it quite distinct from matters of taste like liking tea."

My claim that I think tea tastes nice is exactly equivalent to my claim that TACTDJFF is wrong. It is my opinion on both matters.

As you say, my claim about tea is not refuted by someone else not liking tea, and neither is my claim about TACTDJFF refuted by someone disagreeing.

You are applying the word 'refuting' to the two cases as if its saying the same thing but it isn't. If someone disagrees that tea is nice, they are disagreeing with you purely by reference to their internal subjective perception of tea - it isn't an attempt to 'refute' your preference at all because one persons preference doesn't in any way necessarily effect or negate the others - there is no refuting involved they just have different tastes. I don't think you are making a mistake in liking tea. But the whole point about a  disagreement were one person thinks TACTDJFF (or anything!) is morally ok and we say it isn't, the claim isn't one where we just accept that I am reacting with an emotional 'boo' to TACTDJFF and they are giving it an emotional 'hurray'. If someone thinks it is ok, we do want to refute them in the true sense of refute, we think they are making a mistake  by missing things about the nature of TACTDJFF that they should be paying attention too which make it wrong and are prepared to blame or praise them accordingly. Reducing the way we reason about morality to a type of emotivist reaction like preferring tea is a gross distortion of our ethical practice.

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Alan is, as you say, claiming that when he says that TACTDJFF is wrong means that "he's saying it is wrong for everyone whatever their 'taste' may be for causing pain", then he is making a claim of objectivity. However, like my view of tea, it is his opinion and therefore the claim of objectivity fails (by definition).

This can be taken 2 ways,

1)   To simply be saying ‘An opinion in itself can never establish somethings objectivity’. This is correct, but also trivial as no one is claiming that the objectivity of morality is dependent on opinions for its objectivity...not me, not Alan, as I said before.

Or you could mean:

2)   to say that ‘If you have an opinion about something
  • being objective, then that claim to objectivity will necessarily be false (as an opinion is by its nature is a subjective thing).


As no one is defending (1) I took it that you meant (2), but unfortunately (2) is a logical error for the reason I said before – the objectivity of the target of the belief is not dependent on opinion for its objectivity and there are lots of things we could put in place of
  • in (2) to show that our belief in their objectivity does not affect its actual objectivity (alternative universes, etc). The problem comes whenever we have discussed this you have then tried to rely on other factors like ‘verification’ or ‘relevance’ to sustain your argument…but to say something fails ‘by definition’ or is ‘self-refuting’ MEANS that it has to fail by virtue of the factors that you define as self-refuting alone - in this case being an opinion about somethings objectivity – to be self-refuting means you don’t need to appeal to anything else to show why it’s wrong. Seeing as I can have an opinion about the objectivity of lots of things existing objectively – some verifiable like Barak Obama and some not like alternative universes – and that my opinion doesn’t affect their objective existence in any way, then I can know that (2) is false.
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It may be that there is an objective taste and/or an objective morality, but it can't be asserted into existence through "he's saying it is wrong for everyone whatever their 'taste' may be for causing pain".

Which no one is arguing for OM including Alan. The argument is that if you hold certain beliefs about morality then to be consistent you have to hold that morality is OM.

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It may also be that my claim about tea and Alan's about TACTDJFF do actually match the relevant objective taste/morality, but that would be coincidence rather than either of us identifying the OT/OM.

Well that depends with OM, although no one claims a simple read-off method of determining OM, however Moral Realists do think that we can discover moral truth and make progress in towards it, the method we use will depend on the account of moral realism as per examples in reply 18 on page 1 on this thread.

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And…… views of TACTDJFF agreeing are just that - agreement or lack of it; they can't be evidence for OT/OM because that's ad populum.

As above the argument is not that the evidence that OM exists is based on the agreement of subjective views, although they might be evidence that certain ways we think about moral questions assumes objectivity and that if we are to sustain our moral practice as it is and be consistent in our beliefs we should also therefore accept OM. I do agree though that the example of TACTDJFF has become a distraction in this argument. It’s a simple attempt at a short cut to OM that in my view leads to more confusion than progress.


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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #196 on: June 14, 2015, 09:43:55 PM »
wigginhall
Hi Wiggs, this is going to be a long response but I thought it was worth the time because I also pick up things relevant to Enki’s points and also because the emotion bit is pretty fundamental and easily misunderstood.

 
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I'm trying to line this up in the right order, in order to do it justice.  The objectivity of morality isn't determined by our beliefs, but by aspects of certain actions, which have apparently objective aspects, e.g. cruelty.   Also, the way we arrive at moral judgments indicates that we are referring to something objective, for example, it's difficult to change your mind about morality.

Is that a fair summary?
 

Erm, not really no, not the last bit at least. But to start with the first bit, actions certainly have morally relevant features which we perceive, all realists would probably agree. Some would say that moral facts are just truths in the act themselves while others would argue that the truth arises in relation to a combination of both the facts themselves and a certain conception of the world we bring to understanding those facts – however crucially the latter type of realist would argue that there is a correct way to perceive the world in terms of moral qualities.
A theist might for example argue that the morally ‘correct’ way to see the world is one that recognises teleological facts about God’s purpose in the universe. God has created a universe to bring about conscious agents with specific, physical psychological and spiritual needs and part of the purpose of the universe is to allow those agents to flourish. Part of what is required to flourish (in its fullest sense including our spiritual flourishing) involves developing certain virtues of character. It is only someone who possesses the right balance of virtues who will be in the position to generate a correct conception of a situation and comprehend the facts in a way that gives the right answers to moral questions. For the rest of us we have to make our best approximation based on our limited understanding of what it means to live a good flourishing life. We might have different opinions of what it means to live a good flourishing life, but there is only one (broadly speaking) right answer to this question and it is related to our purpose as defined by God and actualised in our nature. The method for recognising these virtues is to deepen our understanding of what it means to flourish, both in relation to our physical and psychological needs on one hand (through observation and reason) and also spiritually through deepening our understanding and relationship with God on the other.
 As for the second bit, the example of changing our moral views isn’t of an objective character because it’s difficult to do, it’s because when we change our beliefs we do so because we think there is a right answer to moral questions and that our previous belief wasn’t hitting it. We don’t just think I thought X yesterday but today my taste in X has changed so I will change my moral position. The point about this being difficult isn’t that the difficulty we feel in itself implies objectivity (rather the sense of a right answer does that) its rather that the difficulty we feel in trying to get to the right answer is an indicator of how important this is to some of the most central elements of the human condition and also that any ‘thin senses’ of truth that anti-realists might try refer to instead just can’t account for this. In other words, this core sense of striving for the right answer in relation to our basic beliefs is not something we can just discard without also discarding central elements of our humanity.
I emphasise this because, as I have argued throughout the last thread, even if moral truth is as fundamental to our moral reasoning as I maintain – accepting OM is not the only logical choice…the other is to say our morality as practiced is a distortion and should be replaced if we are going to be honest to the implication of anti-realism. The challenge for anyone taking this route would be (i) explain how it could possibly have arisen that our morality is so universally and fundamentally distorted and (ii) how we can salvage something that gives us anything like the motivation and structure to our moral reasoning if we abandon the implicit assumption of realism.

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It still seems vitiated to me by involving feelings - for example, we often dislike cruelty, so you could argue that our sense of wrongness reflects that.  In fact, the word 'cruel' is intrinsically judgmental.

Is there something wrong about which we don't have feelings, and the wrongness of which is inherent in the act itself?  But here, I pause at that word 'itself'.   What does that mean?  It seems to complete a circle - things in themselves are objective.  Well, duh.

 You mentioned this on the previous thread and it seems that your core objection is based on the fact that our feelings are so intimately bound up with morality. The presumption you seem to be making is that the realist thinks morality is fundamentally dispassionate if it is to be cognitive. Although this might have appealed to Kant, I don’t think any living moral realist thinks this – they all maintain a fundamental role for our feelings in moral judgements although there are 2 very different camps of types of realists who disagree about how they are related.

Camp 1 are ‘externalists about motivation.’  Which mean they argue that although we can recognise moral facts rationally, just recognising them in themselves does not motivate us to act on them. Our feelings are what motivates us to act morally and so in a morally responsive person what makes us react to things the way we do is by both recognising the fact that something is wrong with torture because of what it means to inflict deliberate pain, while at the same time also being repulsed by it so that we want to do something about it. This group of realists would say that for the most part morally sensitive people are both emotional and reason but also that it is possible for wicked people to understand that something is morally wrong yet not care about it. Equally good people can react strongly emotionally to something that we really do not desire to do but do it anyway because we recognise it is the right thing to do (e.g. feel upset about having to putting a suffering animal out of its misery or sacrificing our life for a moral duty. Our feelings might be pulling us all over the place in these situations and its our rational understanding of what is right that leads us to the correct course of action).

Camp 2 argue that the model of moral cognition that the anti-realist and the realists in camp 1 share is a huge over-simplification in the way it seeks to neatly demarcate beliefs and desires as separate types of states. They don’t deny that it is possible for beliefs and desires to be distinct, but they do think in relation to motivational states these are both cognitive and motivational at the same time – in other words we have conceptions of the world which are rational cognitive models of what we are perceiving and it is these very conceptions of reality that demand we act in certain ways and intrinsically involve value. Two people could both see the same thing and describe the same features but fit that description into very different overarching conceptions of reality, some of which may demand them to act and some which don’t. This camp would argue that is not possible to make intelligibly understand any desire we can come up with. Wanting a saucer of mud makes no sense unless we can’t conceive of a way of understanding those facts in a way anyone could want. On the other hand one person may see climbing up a cliff as a terrible situation to avoid while someone else does it for a hobby, and although they see the same thing, their conception of what they are perceiving is very different. On this view moral reason and feelings are entirely bound up together with our conception of the world and value is something we perceive like everything else within this conception.

Regards

DT

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #197 on: June 14, 2015, 09:45:59 PM »
Hi Enki

 
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I accept that this is a reasonable argument for those who have a fundamental belief in OM. However, I would counter that by saying that the fact that I have an instinctive and emotional sense of morality says nothing about it having an objective existence. I suggest that it is just as reasonable to suggest that natural selection has built us this way in order to develop strategies that are tailored to the social world we live in.

Then we would have to apply our ideas to examples of how we make particular decisions and see if it fits with the theory. My argument isn't just that I think A and you think B, its about giving account that makes sense of how we reason about morality in practice. If our morality was just invention, we'd also have to give an account why truth is so deeply presupposed within it and how such a universal distortion could possibly come about.

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The fact we are inclined to trust our intuitions as the basis of our metaphysical beliefs is coloured by the fact that those same intuitions can vary widely. Therefore I don't  feel that this is a justification that those basic intuitions(including my own) are necessarily correct. Thus, for myself, I can happily assume that the world around me is absolutely real for all practical purposes, but it does not mean that it might not be some form of highly complex illusion. Science, as you intimate, is clearly founded on the belief that the natural world exists and can be understood and manipulated. For my own part, it seems to be a basic part of my nature that I am sceptical about all manner of things, and will only be convinced when I am faced with clear evidence.  Incidentally, as an atheist, I have never been of the opinion that those who do not share my point of view are therefore irrational. That sounds like quite an 'irrational' approach.

What I'd say to that is, if we drilled down into what counted as evidence for you we'd end up with some basic intuitions which cannot be evidenced. Nevertheless I'm glad re yr opinions on theism its nice to be able to have an amicable exchange.

 
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My position would be as follows:

If other entities were involved in Alan's scenario, and asuming no humans existed, then I would consider my own present views, which are entirely from a human perspective, to be superfluous. There is no way that I could feel I should or could impose my own views on such an hypothetical situation.

Well you might not think you could but you should make a judgement about what is the right action to take when confronted with something that matches the description TACTDJFF applies. I think if we can make intelligible sense that this description was accurate we have enough of a shared conception of reality to justify our acting. Nevertheless...

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If, on the other hand, we take Alan's scenario as is, then, of course I would feel TACTTDJFF to be wrong, as I have already said. However, I suggest that humans do often react in this way to the immediacy of such a situation. If one changes the parameters only slightly, then it is not so clear cut at all. For instance, if one changes it a little to 'someone else torturing a child to death in order to give us pleasure' then it does not seem so clear cut. Examples of this approach might be the prevailing atitudes to child labour in the brickyards, the coal mines etc. during the 19th Century when large swathes of the population did not feel so incensed about the immorality of such a situation, or even today, when child labour has been used in different parts of the world to satisfy our enjoyment of fashionable clothing.

The reason I don't like TACTDFJFF as an example is that I don't think morality is about principles at all and I agree small changes in circumstances can make a big difference about what is right. I think this because right action is to do with how we apply virtues to situations and nothing like a set of rules we read off and try to apply uniformly.

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I am of the opinion that a scenario is, of itself, neither moral nor immoral. It seems to depend on how we, as human beings, view it.

Agree with that. I just think that some ways of viewing it are accurate and some are not.

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For instance, on a personal level, someone who has recently been bereaved, might react with strong emotions to some particular action or object which reminds them of their loved one. This does not mean that the action or object has some intrinsic quality associated with this emotion, it simply means for that person it becomes a trigger to set off the emotion. For another person it may have no such meaning.

no disagreement with that either although this is not intrinsically a moral situation you are describing of course.
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Morality, it seems to me, is something like this writ large. By that, I mean that the vast majority of human beings react in roughly similar ways to particular acts, either with abhorrence or commendation, and we give these feelings the names morality/immorality because we think that others should also react as we do.

I think we often react in common because we share a conception of reality to a large extent and this includes perceiving moral properties...however I think your last sentence is very revealing "we think that others should also react as we do". To say this is to acknowledge that we think moral judgements have right answers -we think if someone who tolerates torture of children is wrong and blameworthy, unlike someone who prefers a different beverage to us which is nothing like this. Its also why we struggle to get to the right answer when we change our moral beliefs.

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The trouble I find with this approach is that, apart from our general moral feelings, our moral practices can deviate quite strongly according to how we rationalise them in any given situation. Apart from the most generalised moral attitudes(which I would explain through feelings such as empathy, sympathy, social cohesion etc) we can make contrary 'moral' decisions according to how we analyse a situation(E.G. assisted suicide, abortion).
This is not a contradiction to realism, it sounds exactly like what a realist of the camp 2 I described in my reply to Wiggs would say.

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As far as your idea of the trauma of changing our moral opinions goes, I quite agree with you when you say that it can be intensely traumatic. However, changing all sorts of things in our lives, when we change our deep seated outlooks, can be traumatic too. We may be in the process of changing our views of another person, which may release similar agonised feelings. We may realise(through illness, for instance) that what we thought was an entirely adequate lifestyle has to change dramatically for us to remain healthy. This may induce its own major mental problems as we go through a period when we lose our self confidence. What I am saying is that changes in our moral attitudes, as with other things which are deeply ingrained in our lives and in our thinking, can have an understandable traumatic effect on us. If a person, after an intense period of soul searching , changes from being a theist to an atheist, I would not suggest that this demonstrates the truth or otherwise of atheism, so I'm not sure why a person changing their fundamental moral attitudes demonstrates the actual existence of OM.

See comments on this in reply to Wiggs post...the trauma isn't the indicator of OM, the sense of there being a 'right answer' is...the trauma is an indicator of why we can't simply say something like "although we might have evolved to want other people to react as we do, its really just a matter of emotional taste" without massively undermining the role and structure of morality in our lives.

Regards

DT

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #198 on: June 14, 2015, 11:44:02 PM »
Be assured I have no desire to convince you of anything,

Good man, we'll agree to disagree then.

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That's because voting is subjective is a different sense to the one we have been discussing meaning something we think should be up to us individually.[/quote[

Nope its exactly the same.

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Nevertheless the reason we vote is usually because we think that the Lib Dems will govern better and that there policies will be more successful than others, and these are factual questions

Like its the same but different?

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...ones we can't know the answer too with any certainty to be sure as politics and economics are complex and the answers will only be seen in time but they are factual claims nonetheless.

Oh dear now its looks like its different but the same.

Next DT will be along to tell us shit isn't food unless you are a fly.
Doubt is not a pleasant condition, but certainty is absurd.
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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #199 on: June 15, 2015, 06:27:36 AM »
Be assured I have no desire to convince you of anything,

Good man, we'll agree to disagree then.

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That's because voting is subjective is a different sense to the one we have been discussing meaning something we think should be up to us individually.[/quote[

Nope its exactly the same.

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Nevertheless the reason we vote is usually because we think that the Lib Dems will govern better and that there policies will be more successful than others, and these are factual questions

Like its the same but different?

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...ones we can't know the answer too with any certainty to be sure as politics and economics are complex and the answers will only be seen in time but they are factual claims nonetheless.

Oh dear now its looks like its different but the same.

Next DT will be along to tell us shit isn't food unless you are a fly.

You think believing something should be up to us to decide means the same thing as it only existing as a subjective truth? Ohh good job! Tell your atheist buddies you have actually found a way to prove God doesn't exist! ...as religion is something we are free to choose in democracies then that follows that means that God can't exist objectively, right! You can write a book and be famous. :)...jakeswan ..who did what Dawkins never could.

Or perhaps it's just that in democracies we think people should be free to make up their mind about truth claims tht we can't prove and yet recognise these can still be factual questions...