Author Topic: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?  (Read 106406 times)

Enki

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #225 on: June 23, 2015, 12:01:42 PM »
Thanks Len,

You are too kind. :)
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Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #226 on: June 26, 2015, 03:20:12 PM »
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Which is what you would expect from any social species of animal, much like love, which is also subjective or beauty perhaps? Funny isn't it I have no intuitions about the speed of light in a vacuum.
Is it what we expect? Why would we expect a universal expectation of a right answer, and indeed a right answer in a strong sense if it was just like love? We don't expect that there is a universally applicable answer to the question 'who is the right person to love?' after all.

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A confession of confirmation bias is not going serve the argument well.
Lol how long have you been arguing on websites? long enough to have learned that any argument is dependent on its premise I would have hoped by now, yet it seems a surprise to you! You don't seem to understand confirmation bias either, as the conclusion of the argument (God being the best explanation for OM) is not in any obvious way the same as the premise that you are referring to (OM exists) in relation to confirmation bias. If it was there would no doubt be far less atheists who are moral realists.

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #227 on: June 26, 2015, 03:22:16 PM »
Hi Enki,

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Sorry I haven't replied sooner. Been quite busy over the weekend.

That's ok I often go long periods of being too busy to reply as this last gap is testament to.

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I never entered this discussion either in this thread or the original one to state that OM can't exist, but to show the flaws in Alan's arguments(especially the ones predicated on his TACTDJFF example) that OM must exist. Of course there are differing opinions on this, and atheists being a disparate bunch, some would take an entirely different position to me. I find that no problem at all.

fair enough. I've also tried to give a different interpretation of what I think Alan was saying than was being represented by Ht et al but we've done that to death I think and I have mounted enough of my own defence of OM now to leave Alan's argument to rest, unless he decides to rejoin the discussion. theists are a disparate bunch to and the version of moral realisms relationship with God I have sketched is not the standard one.

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I have suggested that the ideas inherent in evolution can account for our sense of morality. If you wish to go further and suggest that these moral ideas have a basis in a morality which is extraneous to human thinking, no problem at all. However, to convince me, some sort of evidence is needed that this is so. I suggest that evidence of the flavour of 'I have a strong, deep seated, intuitive feeling that X is right and Y is wrong' is not the evidence I am looking for. Perhaps I may put it this way. The fact that I live my life as if free will existed is not evidence that it actually does.

Well as per the first point I certainly think that the process of evolution is the medium for the development of our morality but if you go on to say its capable of accounting for the strong and universal sense of truth in human societies re morality then it incumbent on you to explain how. The same is true of the second bit of what you say here. Its correct that just because we think there is moral truth and just because we think there is free will, that that doesn't necessarily mean that there is, nevertheless our basic experience of the world are the starting point for any discussion on morality (or indeed free will) and if you think our deep intuitions are delusions its incumbent on you to say why and also how such illusions could have come to be so widely held. Even when this is done and if you had given a consistent account, that wouldn't give us a reason to prefer that account over a moral realist alternative unless there are compelling reasons to do so. You seem to want to place the burden of proof on the moral realist but that is the complete reverse of the case when you are claiming our core intuitions and experiences are delusions. What you are doing here is assuming a framework for interpreting the world is true (i.e. physicalism) and then speaking about some of the counter-intuitive implications of physicalism as if they are self-evident….but physicalism is itself an unprovable metaphysical perspective and not at all self evident. If physicalism is so compelling as to make us want to embrace conclusions that are hugely counter-intuitive and at odds with our experience of the world, then what evidence is so strong as to make us want to embrace such a view?

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We have both agreed that any particular situation is not moral/immoral of itself. Therefore it has to be the human mind acting on such a situation that decides thus. I have suggested that it is quite reasonable to suggest that the morality/immorality of such a situation therefore exists solely in the human mind. Now, I accept that if one has a different world view, for instance that is quite feasible to think that the moral values which exist in our mind come from some sort of outside source(perhaps similar to the Platonic world of forms), then that too could be entirely possible. Unfortunately, for me, I repeat that I would have to have convincing evidence that this source actually exists. And, I don't.

No we haven't agreed that and if you think that you misunderstand. To be clear there are realists who believe moral truth is reducable to natural facts and there are realists who believe in morality existing in a platonic form but I have given a different account to either of those. I have argued that when we perceive morality in a situation its a result of our conception of the world and that this is to do with a particular way beings with particular faculties and the a particular balance of virtues will see the situation - nevertheless the moral truth isn't based just on the fact that they are perceived because of our conception (something in our minds) but because there is a right way to perceive the world. This ‘right way’ is based on teleological facts that are entirely independent of our conception - they are facts based on the flourishing of conscious beings. I introduced the idea of 'conception' in contrast to the naive view of facts and values as entirely distinct in response to Wiggs point about emotions and morality, not as the grounding for moral truth in itself.

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My position is that in all sorts of areas (e.g. god, beauty, morality, spirituality) we often think we are right to believe that they have an existence(or not, as the case may be). My contention is that, unless there is actual solid evidence that they exist, then it is just as reasonable to suggest that they are products of the human mind.

The crux here is what does ‘evidence’ mean. Our perception of moral truth, God, etc are of epistemologically relevant forms of evidence for belief formation – it doesn’t mean they are necessarily true, but all of our perceptions form the evidential basis of our beliefs. Indeed if we are giving an account of morality (as we are) then the primary evidence of its correctness is its fit with morality as it exists and is experienced. If your theory can't do that adequately its a poor theory and in order to take the way we view morality is distorted then that's a pretty big claim - to make that claim you are drawing on a prior commitment to something that to you weighs more heavily than the facts about our moral experience and discourse, and it seems thats a commitment to physicalism.

Here I find myself a bit conflicted because I have tried to be fair to moral realim in a wider form than my own particular views and there are moral realists who are also physicalists and do not want to ground moral reality in God etc. nevertheless I do ground it in God and as no one else is arguing for the physicalist realist position here I'm not going to do that for them.

There's no doubt its true that the argument for morality can work the other way if you have a pre-commitment to physicalism and also believe that you can't give a physiicalist compatible account of morality:

1. Physicalism is true
2. You can't give an account of OM consistent with physicalism
3. Therefore morality is not objective.

Which is the trouble with forums like this as it almost always ends up with 2 sides with incompatible base commitments bumping heads. Nevertheless for anyone who did not start with such a prior ideological preclusion, a moral theory would be judged by its fit with our moral experience (and not with any claim to evidence that might resemble scientific evidence which is not appropriate to the subject matter) and if the implications of that contradict physicalism them that's all well and good.

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In other words, we tend to think that our views at any given moment on a myriad of situations are the right ones. And, as you say, when we disagree with another view, we tend to think that it is we who have the 'right' answer, whether we do or not. I don't see this as a problem at all. For me, this is the way nature, through evolution, has created us.

Hold on, but it hasn't created this kind of error with our view of taste in music or marmite, why should it with morality? Human societies may have disagreed on the content of moral truth but they have agreed that there is a right answer. If this has been got wrong so fundamentally why on earth would that happen? Simply saying 'evolution did it' doesn't shed any light on this at all.

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I do think that there are some similarities between questions of taste and those of morality. As I have already stated, questions of morality seem to have a much deeper emotional base, and therefore the rightness or wrongness of these is held with much greater conviction.(I would suggest, for powerful evolutionary reasons.)

I wouldn't suggest that our sense of moral truth is 'just an error' at all. It seems to be a mechanism which, despite its obvious problems of interpretation, basically welds societies together and allows humans to function within a social setting. In this sense, it seems to be largely a useful survival mechanism, rather than an 'error'. I would suggest that the very fact that whole groups/societies have, thoughout history, tended to construct their own moral laws, especially as regards an individual's behaviour within that group, shows what I would call the moral instinct at work.

But strength of emotion doesn't make it switch over into truth at some point...and if its still an emotional reaction without a right answer and so us implicitly thinking their is a right answer to moral questions IS a mistake however we try to dress it up. It also throws up other problems:

(1) Not all moral commitments are linked to huge emotional responses as we have seen, we can be quite dispassionate about moral decisions at times and indeed think things are morally required despite the emotional desire to do something else. Equally some of our taste preferences are incredibly strong but don't give rise to the same delusion of truth.
 
(2) If we had evolved emotional commitments to moral positions that are so strong that we couldn't distinguish them from truth claims, then how is it possible for other members of the same species who share our evolutionary history to have evolved a belief in conflicting moral positions? You paint our strength of commitment to morality as a 'general commitment' so powerful that it overpowers our ability to distinguish it from other forms of taste, yet apparently one society can slot into that 'X' and another 'not X' without any apparent need for the content of morality itself to be the point of commitment. This is deeply implausible.

 
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....I don't stop thinking I feel that this is right or this is wrong simply because I also think that when I die, my moral attitudes die with me. I would suggest that similar moral feelings will live on after my death because, for reasons already given, I see the bases of these feelings to be an integral part of human minds.

Some moral realists may well agree -but they would distinguish between dependent on human minds meaning 'dependent on human perception' on one hand and  'dependent on human conception based on our shared capacities and faculties as a species' on the other. Re. the latter, these faculties are themselves facts about the universe independent of our beliefs about them and which provide a factual basis for human flourishing.

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I don't, however, see moral instincts or feelings having some sort of objective existence outside of humanity(unless, of course you include the proto-morality of some animal species, or consider the viabilty of unknown aliens). Therefore, I see no reason to think that the consequences of not accepting OM will be any different to those that already exist.

well it makes a pretty big difference for the place of morality in our lives and our commitment to it to believe on one hand that what we are doing is right, and that we forge our lives in accordance with what is right.... and on the other to believe that our sense of right is after all reducible to a moral taste, however strongly held, which is neither right or wrong...a world in which, should my moral tastes have been different I would be equally 'right' to do the things I currently abhor.

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I have enjoyed reading your replies, DT, but I think that I, at least, am beginning to simply go over old ground. so, unless anything new arises, I intend to leave it there. Thanks for the obvious care and commitment you have put into your responses. These have been very much appreciated.

Thanks Enki and me too its been a thoughtful exchange and no doubt we will continue to disagree about this and other matters. As your post was so considered I wanted to articulate an equally considered response.... nevertheless it may well be that you feel this provides nothing substantially new to respond to in which case thanks for the interesting discussion.

regards

DT

Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #228 on: June 26, 2015, 04:02:39 PM »
The argument is that if you hold certain beliefs about morality then to be consistent you have to hold that morality is OM.

No we have covered this you are conflating objective morality and objective moral values.
Eh? Objective moral values are part of objective morality (if it exists).
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If you subjectively base your morality on what the Bible says then you can arrive at objective moral values, pick your axioms.
What about objectively basing my morality on what the bible teaches?
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Here was Al's argument:-

objective morality is that something is morally right or wrong independent of how many people think it so.

If someone agrees with me that an act, any act, is morally wrong and that this does not depend on how many people believe it to be so, they are logically bound to believe in the existence of objective morality.

I agree some acts are morally wrong and that this does not depend on me thinking it so.

My beliefs are consistent with morality being subjective.
No, they are not. You have said that some acts are morally wrong and in the second part of the sentence say that they fit the definition of objective morality.
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Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #229 on: June 26, 2015, 04:03:57 PM »
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Alien on July 10, 2014, 11:47:56 AM
If someone agrees with me that an act, any act, is morally wrong and that this does not depend on how many people believe it to be so, they are logically bound to believe in the existence of objective morality.

Why? They are simply giving their opinion that it is wrong no matter how many people believe it to be so, so as an opinion it can only be subjective.
They are logically bound to believe in the existence of objective morality because they believe in the existence of something which fits that definition.

This is not hard, Leonard.
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Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #230 on: June 26, 2015, 04:05:57 PM »
...

My opinion is that Alan chose that example because it would have almost universal agreement, and that would bolster his claim.
Yes, that is correct.
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Several people suggested other situations in the original threads, but for some reason, they didn't have the same level of agreement.
And which is irrelevant to my claim. If anyone can come up with just one example of something being objectively morally right or wrong, then that demonstrates the existence of objective morality. It really is that simple.
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Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #231 on: June 26, 2015, 04:07:16 PM »
...

Its not a matter of conflation, an objective moral value is a part of what we mean by OM and having an axiom that you hold too doesn't make it objective nor any of the values derived from it. The quotes you print from Alan's argument seem to suggest that he means it to be interpreted in exactly the way I suggested - that if you think any act (i.e. not just TACTDJFF) is morally wrong and you think it is not morally wrong dependent on anyone's opinion then (in order to be consistent) you are bound to believe in OM. If you don't believe they are independent of opinion then you won't.
Agreed.
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BeRational

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #232 on: June 26, 2015, 04:15:59 PM »
...

My opinion is that Alan chose that example because it would have almost universal agreement, and that would bolster his claim.
Yes, that is correct.
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Several people suggested other situations in the original threads, but for some reason, they didn't have the same level of agreement.
And which is irrelevant to my claim. If anyone can come up with just one example of something being objectively morally right or wrong, then that demonstrates the existence of objective morality. It really is that simple.

But no one has come up with an example, that is the issue.
I see gullible people, everywhere!

Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #233 on: June 26, 2015, 05:46:22 PM »
...

My opinion is that Alan chose that example because it would have almost universal agreement, and that would bolster his claim.
Yes, that is correct.
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Several people suggested other situations in the original threads, but for some reason, they didn't have the same level of agreement.
And which is irrelevant to my claim. If anyone can come up with just one example of something being objectively morally right or wrong, then that demonstrates the existence of objective morality. It really is that simple.

But no one has come up with an example, that is the issue.
Torturing a child to death just for fun is an example unless you think that in some circumstances it may be OK. Do you? What hellish idea of morality would that come from?
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BeRational

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #234 on: June 26, 2015, 05:50:29 PM »
...

My opinion is that Alan chose that example because it would have almost universal agreement, and that would bolster his claim.
Yes, that is correct.
Quote
Several people suggested other situations in the original threads, but for some reason, they didn't have the same level of agreement.
And which is irrelevant to my claim. If anyone can come up with just one example of something being objectively morally right or wrong, then that demonstrates the existence of objective morality. It really is that simple.

But no one has come up with an example, that is the issue.
Torturing a child to death just for fun is an example unless you think that in some circumstances it may be OK. Do you? What hellish idea of morality would that come from?

Yes I think it's fine.

How do we know test which one of us is correct?

I know you are not going to suggest some sort of poll.
I see gullible people, everywhere!

Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #235 on: June 26, 2015, 06:26:33 PM »
...

My opinion is that Alan chose that example because it would have almost universal agreement, and that would bolster his claim.
Yes, that is correct.
Quote
Several people suggested other situations in the original threads, but for some reason, they didn't have the same level of agreement.
And which is irrelevant to my claim. If anyone can come up with just one example of something being objectively morally right or wrong, then that demonstrates the existence of objective morality. It really is that simple.

But no one has come up with an example, that is the issue.
Torturing a child to death just for fun is an example unless you think that in some circumstances it may be OK. Do you? What hellish idea of morality would that come from?

Yes I think it's fine.

How do we know test which one of us is correct?

I know you are not going to suggest some sort of poll.
OK, that's fine. BeRational thinks it is fine to "torture a child to death just for fun."

Did you get that, folks?
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Nearly Sane

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #236 on: June 26, 2015, 06:56:54 PM »
...

My opinion is that Alan chose that example because it would have almost universal agreement, and that would bolster his claim.
Yes, that is correct.
Quote
Several people suggested other situations in the original threads, but for some reason, they didn't have the same level of agreement.
And which is irrelevant to my claim. If anyone can come up with just one example of something being objectively morally right or wrong, then that demonstrates the existence of objective morality. It really is that simple.

But no one has come up with an example, that is the issue.
Torturing a child to death just for fun is an example unless you think that in some circumstances it may be OK. Do you? What hellish idea of morality would that come from?

Yes I think it's fine.

How do we know test which one of us is correct?

I know you are not going to suggest some sort of poll.
OK, that's fine. BeRational thinks it is fine to "torture a child to death just for fun."

Did you get that, folks?
yep, he probably hates marmite, now answer his question.

Andy

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #237 on: June 26, 2015, 07:59:38 PM »
...

My opinion is that Alan chose that example because it would have almost universal agreement, and that would bolster his claim.
Yes, that is correct.
Quote
Several people suggested other situations in the original threads, but for some reason, they didn't have the same level of agreement.
And which is irrelevant to my claim. If anyone can come up with just one example of something being objectively morally right or wrong, then that demonstrates the existence of objective morality. It really is that simple.

But no one has come up with an example, that is the issue.
Torturing a child to death just for fun is an example unless you think that in some circumstances it may be OK. Do you? What hellish idea of morality would that come from?

Yes I think it's fine.

How do we know test which one of us is correct?

I know you are not going to suggest some sort of poll.
OK, that's fine. BeRational thinks it is fine to "torture a child to death just for fun."

Did you get that, folks?

Yes, because like you, we're all "blind" to the hypothetical he is posing.

I think you'll be hard pressed to find someone who believes that you actually believe he's talking literally, so I don't really see the point of your response apart from to jus evade and gloss over the point like no one will notice.

However, perhaps if BR stated that he thought it was fine to drown new and unborn babies because the society they were part of was "evil", you'd have no problem...

Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #238 on: June 26, 2015, 09:17:31 PM »
...

My opinion is that Alan chose that example because it would have almost universal agreement, and that would bolster his claim.
Yes, that is correct.
Quote
Several people suggested other situations in the original threads, but for some reason, they didn't have the same level of agreement.
And which is irrelevant to my claim. If anyone can come up with just one example of something being objectively morally right or wrong, then that demonstrates the existence of objective morality. It really is that simple.

But no one has come up with an example, that is the issue.
Torturing a child to death just for fun is an example unless you think that in some circumstances it may be OK. Do you? What hellish idea of morality would that come from?

Yes I think it's fine.

How do we know test which one of us is correct?

I know you are not going to suggest some sort of poll.
OK, that's fine. BeRational thinks it is fine to "torture a child to death just for fun."

Did you get that, folks?
yep, he probably hates marmite, now answer his question.
I'd use the same methodology as Nearly Sane (or one of the other methods on offer). I have answered such questions in the past and we are just going over the same old ground. One reason might be that causing such suffering is not justified since the child's right to not suffer is more important than the torturer's desire for fun.

How do you work out that it is wrong or do you, like BeRational, think it is "fine"?

I know he doesn't think it is fine any more than you or I do. So, I've answered the question. Now you tell me why you think it is morally wrong, please.
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Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #239 on: June 26, 2015, 09:18:39 PM »
...

I think you'll be hard pressed to find someone who believes that you actually believe he's talking literally, so I don't really see the point of your response apart from to jus evade and gloss over the point like no one will notice.

...
So how do you work out whether it is morally wrong? What is your method?
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Nearly Sane

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #240 on: June 26, 2015, 09:22:49 PM »
So all methods are fine and the method that says torturing a child to death for fun is great,according to Alan

horsethorn

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #241 on: June 27, 2015, 05:04:24 PM »
...

My opinion is that Alan chose that example because it would have almost universal agreement, and that would bolster his claim.
Yes, that is correct.
Quote
Several people suggested other situations in the original threads, but for some reason, they didn't have the same level of agreement.
And which is irrelevant to my claim. If anyone can come up with just one example of something being objectively morally right or wrong, then that demonstrates the existence of objective morality. It really is that simple.

But no one has come up with an example, that is the issue.
Torturing a child to death just for fun is an example unless you think that in some circumstances it may be OK. Do you? What hellish idea of morality would that come from?

"Torturing a child to death just for fun is an example unless you think that in some circumstances it may be OK"

No, it isn't; 'unless you think' is completely irrelevant.

To demonstrate that TACTDJFF is an example of OM, you need to provide a method the is, as the definition says, independent of opinion.

ht
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Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #242 on: June 27, 2015, 05:20:08 PM »
Alan has clarified above that he thinks that the reason anyone who accepts an example of OM has, in order to be consistent accept that OM exists. Asking for a method (independent of opinion or otherwise) is entirely tangential to that point - as Alan is not saying your opinion makes it objective he is saying you are implicitly accepting OM in what you already believe and therefore to be consistent need to accept OM. If we assume ReRational is lying and does not think TACTDJFF is ok and also further accepts that no possible opinion to the contra could ever make it ok, no matter what some sick individual might think, then you are stating that you believe in OM. Its a fair question for Alan to ask, and is also, assuming you do think that TACTDJFF is always wrong regardless of opinion, fair to ask you to justify what it is that leads you to think that. Its about examining your intuitions about morality - ones that imply morality is objective. If you disagree its wrong for everyone you are affirming something massively at odds with our moral intuitions. If you agree you are, in order to be consistent, affirming OM.

For most people who would not try and bend over backwards to avoid stating the fact that we assume OM in our morality, it is then legitimate to go on and ask 'how can we account for OM?' or 'how do we know the content of OM?' The second of these questions depends on the answer you give to the first, but its a separate question to the one Alan is quite legitimately asking and which BeRational et al are doing everything possible to avoid answering including, as everyone seems to accept, blatantly saying the opposite of what he thinks is the case.

horsethorn

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #243 on: June 27, 2015, 07:16:25 PM »
Alan has clarified above that he thinks that the reason anyone who accepts an example of OM has, in order to be consistent accept that OM exists.

The only problem with that is that the person doing the accepting has to ignore the fact that their belief is irrelevant to the existence of OM.

At best, they can say that they are of the opinion that OM exists - which of course is self-contradictory.

Asking for a method (independent of opinion or otherwise) is entirely tangential to that point - as Alan is not saying your opinion makes it objective he is saying you are implicitly accepting OM in what you already believe and therefore to be consistent need to accept OM.

Nope. I can accept that I may think something is wrong (anywhere, anytime, anyone), and yet realise that it's my *opinion*.

ht
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Gordon

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #244 on: June 27, 2015, 09:37:43 PM »
Alan has clarified above that he thinks that the reason anyone who accepts an example of OM has, in order to be consistent accept that OM exists.

That would certainly seem to be Alan's opinion - other opinions are available.

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #245 on: June 28, 2015, 08:37:18 AM »
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The only problem with that is that the person doing the accepting has to ignore the fact that their belief is irrelevant to the existence of OM.

That's not a problem for the argument. The argument isn't establishing the ontological existence of OM, its establishing that if you are going to be consistent in your beliefs then you should believe in OM

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At best, they can say that they are of the opinion that OM exists - which of course is self-contradictory.

In reply 209 you clarified by this that you mean:
 "An opinion in itself can never establish somethings objectivity’."

Which of course is not the same thing as saying a belief is self-contradictory, as we have seen its quite easy to see how we can have an opinion about something as the target of an opinion is not affected by the opinion itself. Whatismore Alan can certainly do better than to simply say 'there are opinions that OM exists'...he can rather say that 'if you are to be consistent with other beliefs you already hold, then you should accept that OM exists'.

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Nope. I can accept that I may think something is wrong (anywhere, anytime, anyone), and yet realise that it's my *opinion*.

It's the 'anyone' bit that causes the problem. If you think it is wrong for anyone, then you are implicitly accepting that your judgement that it is wrong should apply to them. If by contrast you think that the rightness or wrongness of a situation is related to someone's moral tastes, then it logically follows from that IF they think it is right then it is right (as there is no external standard of rightness to appeal to in order to contradict their views about it).

If you think that something is wrong down to moral taste and also say it is wrong for someone else who doesn't share that taste...well you can definitely have that view, but it would be a mistaken one in just the same way as someone who insisted that I was wrong for disliking marmite was making a logical error. It would be a mistake because you had misapplied the concept of externally applicable standards of truth to matters of taste. You may not like that someone is doing TACTDJFF, but if morality is not something that has an external standard of truth that applies to others despite your opinions, then you can never say 'it is wrong for X to TACTDJFF', the best you can say is 'I disapprove of X TACTDJFF'. Alan didn't ask you whether you disapproved of TACTDJFF, he asked you thought it was wrong and indeed more importantly, whether it was wrong for everyone.

Leonard James

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #246 on: June 28, 2015, 02:06:58 PM »
Alan didn't ask you whether you disapproved of TACTDJFF, he asked if you thought it was wrong and indeed more importantly, whether it was wrong for everyone.

And even if everybody thinks it is wrong, that is still only their personal opinion, and thus NOT evidence for OM.

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #247 on: June 28, 2015, 02:35:18 PM »
The arguement isn't that its wrong because people (someone or everyone) thinks its wrong...it's that if you think its wrong and that your judgement of its wrongness applies to everyone then, in order to be consistent, you should also accept OM

Leonard James

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #248 on: June 28, 2015, 03:30:12 PM »
The arguement isn't that its wrong because people (someone or everyone) thinks its wrong...it's that if you think its wrong and that your judgement of its wrongness applies to everyone then, in order to be consistent, you should also accept OM

Well that is muddled thinking. If you think that your judgement of something being wrong should apply to everybody else, that is simply to assume that YOU are the source of morality, surely. It still doesn't indicate OM.

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #249 on: June 28, 2015, 04:16:07 PM »
No it's an indication that we implicitly assume OM..which leaves. Us with a choice to accept OM or to accept that our moral discourse and practice is a distortion.

No one can prove the ontological status of OM...thats a metaphysical question so it would be foolish to expect to be able to answer that within anything that looked like a scientific proof. What we can do with metaphysical questions is draw out the implications of our core beliefs about the world and see if we can give a consistent account of them.

The arguement for OM certainly isn't irresistible. You could just accept that when someone say bullies a gay kid to the point of suicide...that when you say its wrong you only mean its wrong for you and if a red neck homophobe has different tastes about gay kids dying then its ok for him to do it. I disagree though. I think its wrong for him to do it and by saying it is wrong i mean more than just that I disapprove of it ..I mean that its wrong independent of my opinion or his for good reasons we can identify that are nothing to do with anyone's moral tastes.