Author Topic: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?  (Read 106337 times)

horsethorn

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #350 on: July 08, 2015, 04:58:28 PM »


Depends what your point is.....I have nothing against saying that we can't determine the objective truth of the existence of other universes and so our beliefs about them can only be our opinions and also saying exactly the same of OM. I've said myself more than once that we can't prove OM...but if that's all you are saying then why? No one has claimed OM can be proved.

No, they haven't. People have claimed it exists, and others have asked them for a means to determine that it does, but no-one yet has presented a method.

But as it happens you have said more than that - you have said that you think to have a subjective belief about OM is self contradictory, but that's clearly not true for the reasons you yourself admit...when we can't prove something, we can't prove it, but that doesn't mean it doesn't exist as an objective fact...to use your own phrase our beliefs have "no impact on whether they exist or not". That's exactly right, as Alan and I have both said. Our belief about OM (whether we believe in it or if you don't) have no impact on it...so it can't possibly be the case that our beliefs about OM existing contradicts its existence - if it did then that would be an impact and a pretty big one too. Whenever this is pointed out to you, you have just gone off talking about verification, but as soon as we come to something that can't be verified like other universes, we all have to agree that our beliefs have no impact = none at all one way or the other, and certainly not a self-contradictory one as you have claimed.

Not quite.

'Objective', in this case, means 'independent of opinion'.

Arguing that, because someone is of the opinion that something is OM, they should believe OM exists, is self-contradictory. How can they believe OM exists based on their *opinion* that it does?

Alan has clarified (repeatedly now) that his argument is about consistency of belief, one about our beliefs making morality objective.

Yes, I know.

ht
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Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #351 on: July 09, 2015, 08:07:14 AM »
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No, they haven't. People have claimed it exists, and others have asked them for a means to determine that it does, but no-one yet has presented a method.
We do think it exists, just as some people think other universes exists. We’ve also said it can’t be proved many times so its daft to ask for a method to prove it any more than it makes sense to ask for a method to prove other universes. As Alan has clarified unambiguously that his argument is one about consistency asking for a method is identifying consistency seems a little silly – the method for testing consistency you simply draw out the implications of your beliefs and see if they contradict.

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Not quite.

'Objective', in this case, means 'independent of opinion'.

Arguing that, because someone is of the opinion that something is OM, they should believe OM exists, is self-contradictory. How can they believe OM exists based on their *opinion* that it does?
The argument isn’t that it exists because they believe it. The argument is that if you believe things that imply OM then you should believe in OM to be consistent. That’s not self-contradictory, it’s the opposite. There is nothing self-contradictory in believing that something exists in order to be consistent with other beliefs you have – its not a proof either of course but we can virtually never prove metaphysical questions so we wouldn’t expect to find a proof anyway, all we can do is give the best account. If we believe x and also believe y, where y contradicts x, you can give up x or y (or both). There is nothing self-contradictory about arguing that.

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Yes, I know.
Great hopefully no more repeats of it being self-contradictory then or asking for methods because that just wouldn’t make sense.

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #352 on: July 09, 2015, 08:08:06 AM »
 
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Thanks for explaining your argument I had no idea it would so pitifully weak. I could put it all apart but will just focus on the weakest parts of your post.
Ohh good am I going to be faced with some brilliant insights and blinding arguments! Lets see then..

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Factually incorrect there are countless examples where others morally condemn an act and meant 'I disapprove', is it moral to not pray five times a day, to smoke, to eat a lot of fatty foods, to scratch ones arse, to vote conservative. Every single action we take has a moral dimension to it.
Are you deliberately missing the point? It’s hard to believe seeing as I began the whole post by explaining that my objection to the sentence ‘I disapprove of IS burning people but accept that they don’t’ wasn’t that its false, but that it doesn’t express everything we want to say about morality, pointing out that morality has always about MORE than this such as involving judgements about the wrongness of the action including the fact that we blame them for their actions…..yet you respond to my point  that morality involves more than just disapproving by giving examples of people disapproving…..It beggars belief therefore, that I have to point then the accepting the fact that morality does involves disapproval, does nothing to counter the criticism that morality involves more than JUST disapproval. Not starting well for you then, so far not so much as a failed counter argument from you as you missing the point entirely.

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When I was a young adult I would have described myself as homophobic, empathy, an emotion, for homosexuals changed my view.
Empathy is a good example of how we can’t sharply separate facts and values. Empathy is not simply an emotion, it’s a capacity to feel or understand the emotions of others and then take them into account. Your example above is revealing more for what it didn’t say than what it did…it begs the question, when we use empathy to allow us insight into something (like how homosexuals feel) and change our views because of it we do so because the empathy helps us to recognise our older homophobic views had been mistaken. Empathy allows us to have insights into how other feel that we wouldn’t otherwise take into account and that therefore expand our understanding the world. How we think it feels to be the subject of homosexual prejudice or to love someone who is the same sex as you becomes a fact we take into account and it reveals to us that our older prejudiced perspective missed out this crucial fact about the situation. If we didn’t think the emotion gave us a better perspective we wouldn’t change our view – indeed we could have empathy for someone being sent to prison for a crime but still accept that it is the right thing to do despite our emotional affinity with how they may feel, so its not the emotion itself that drives the change but the wider understanding of the situation that it allows us to appreciate.

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I never claimed moral judgements were just emotional responses. Moral judgements are a complex mix of emotions and reason. Love is a complex mix of emotion and reason. The mix of both is different but the analogy stands.
Good grief it gets worse…Love IS an emotion, that’s its definition! We can’t reason our way into loving someone and often love despite reason. If we feel love we love them and if we don’t we don’t that’s the beginning and end of it regardless of how we might subsequently want to invoke our emotional connections in reasoning about our actions involving people we love.
Anything we reason about can potentially involve emotion so saying ‘it’s a complex mix of emotions and reasons’ doesn’t tell us anything about that relationship.  Luckily a few post back you affirmed that you accept the statement “what is morally right is determined by our instincts, opinions and emotions” so there is no point trying to back track now as your analogy collapses around you
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Moral statements derive their force from emotions.
As a general statement that’s simply false. Morality CAN involve emotions but it can also be exercised dispassionately. Courts go out of their way to give dispassionate sentences to reflect the appropriate level of moral condemnation for crimes as defined in law. Luckily I haven’t had anything stolen for years and thinking of stealing evokes no emotion in me whatsoever, yet I can quite dispassionately accept that its wrong without having to empathise with a theft victim, just based on an appeal to the abstract fact that I think people’s rights to property should be respected. Indeed we often make judgements about what is right or wrong despite our emotions to the contra.
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As we do sometimes with love.
When we pit rational standards of what to do against love it’s because love IS the emotion set against the rationality by contrast when we pit our emotions against the rational standards of what we think we morally should do it’s because morality IS the rational standard we are pitching emotion against!!!
Also noticed you missed out the next two points too.
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I don't think your understand what an analogy is. Treating morality as an objective like 2+2=4 erodes the value of morality and just leaves us with a pale reflection of it.

Thankfully as I’ve already gone in to quite a bit of detail discussing the relationship of emotion and morality it should be clear to anyone that I don’t think morality works like abstract rules at all never mind anything analogous to a mathematical formula. Your attempt to use an analogy to capture what I think is unfortunately just as bad as your own analogy has turned out to be. Realist morality can account for morality exactly as we experience it, the fact that we praise or blame people for making right or wrong moral choices, the fact that we struggle to make the right decisions and discard our old views because they are mistaken when we gain new insights.  Realism understands that facts and values are not distinct and that our rational conception of the world involves inseparable descriptive and evaluative judgements which will motivate and move the virtuous person to action.

After all your bluster and self-proclaimed ‘winning’ of the argument it turns out that every single response you have made above without exception has missed the mark. I would have thought as my arguments were apparently ‘pitifully weak’ that you might have been able to muster a viable defence against at least one of them, but apparently not.

horsethorn

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #353 on: July 09, 2015, 10:05:21 AM »
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No, they haven't. People have claimed it exists, and others have asked them for a means to determine that it does, but no-one yet has presented a method.
We do think it exists, just as some people think other universes exists. We’ve also said it can’t be proved many times so its daft to ask for a method to prove it any more than it makes sense to ask for a method to prove other universes. As Alan has clarified unambiguously that his argument is one about consistency asking for a method is identifying consistency seems a little silly – the method for testing consistency you simply draw out the implications of your beliefs and see if they contradict.

And yet, I accept that I think TACTDJFF to be wrong, and would think it was wrong anytime, anywhere - but I see no reason why that means I should believe in OM. I see my opinion as a product of my upbringing, empathy, etc, etc. If any of those had been different, my opinion may also have been different.

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Not quite.

'Objective', in this case, means 'independent of opinion'.

Arguing that, because someone is of the opinion that something is OM, they should believe OM exists, is self-contradictory. How can they believe OM exists based on their *opinion* that it does?
The argument isn’t that it exists because they believe it. The argument is that if you believe things that imply OM then you should believe in OM to be consistent. That’s not self-contradictory, it’s the opposite. There is nothing self-contradictory in believing that something exists in order to be consistent with other beliefs you have – its not a proof either of course but we can virtually never prove metaphysical questions so we wouldn’t expect to find a proof anyway, all we can do is give the best account. If we believe x and also believe y, where y contradicts x, you can give up x or y (or both). There is nothing self-contradictory about arguing that.

I'm not saying that, though.

I am saying that, as I have pointed out above, peoples' opinion on a moral issue is based on many subjective foundations. To say that because they believe something in wrong and would always be, they should also believe in OM, is to say that they should base their belief in the OM on their opinion.

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Yes, I know.
Great hopefully no more repeats of it being self-contradictory then or asking for methods because that just wouldn’t make sense.

Sure, as soon as it stops being self-contradictory and/or a method is presented.

ht
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jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #354 on: July 09, 2015, 10:30:35 AM »
Are you deliberately missing the point? It’s hard to believe seeing as I began the whole post by explaining that my objection to the sentence ‘I disapprove of IS burning people but accept that they don’t’ wasn’t that its false, but that it doesn’t express everything we want to say about morality,

Did I claim that it expressed everything we want to say about morality?

I was responding to your comment "But in no society, at any point in human history has acts of moral condemnation ever just meant ‘I disapprove of you doing that’"

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Good grief it gets worse…Love IS an emotion, that’s its definition! We can’t reason our way into loving someone and often love despite reason. If we feel love we love them and if we don’t we don’t that’s the beginning and end of it regardless of how we might subsequently want to invoke our emotional connections in reasoning about our actions involving people we love.

Sure love is an an emotion but its driven by other emotions and reasons. You can reason your way into not loving someone, I've had relationships where it became clear to me via reason we were incompatible.

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Anything we reason about can potentially involve emotion so saying ‘it’s a complex mix of emotions and reasons’ doesn’t tell us anything about that relationship.  Luckily a few post back you affirmed that you accept the statement “what is morally right is determined by our instincts, opinions and emotions” so there is no point trying to back track now as your analogy collapses around you

So do you know accept that love is a mixture of reason and emotion?

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As a general statement that’s simply false. Morality CAN involve emotions but it can also be exercised dispassionately. Courts go out of their way to give dispassionate sentences to reflect the appropriate level of moral condemnation for crimes as defined in law. Luckily I haven’t had anything stolen for years and thinking of stealing evokes no emotion in me whatsoever, yet I can quite dispassionately accept that its wrong without having to empathise with a theft victim, just based on an appeal to the abstract fact that I think people’s rights to property should be respected. Indeed we often make judgements about what is right or wrong despite our emotions to the contra.

Courts decide what is legal not what is moral. The thought of someone stealing evokes in an emotion in me, its not that I 'have' to empathise with the victim its just that I do.

"I think peoples rights of property should be respected." Bold = emotion.

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After all your bluster and self-proclaimed ‘winning’ of the argument it turns out that every single response you have made above without exception has missed the mark. I would have thought as my arguments were apparently ‘pitifully weak’ that you might have been able to muster a viable defence against at least one of them, but apparently not.

Yes I'm skip most of your drivel as well. Your position is that we decide moral positions differently to those positions that are clearly subjective like taste and love.

We don't.
Doubt is not a pleasant condition, but certainty is absurd.
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Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #355 on: July 10, 2015, 10:45:01 PM »
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And yet, I accept that I think TACTDJFF to be wrong, and would think it was wrong anytime, anywhere - but I see no reason why that means I should believe in OM. I see my opinion as a product of my upbringing, empathy, etc, etc. If any of those had been different, my opinion may also have been different.
You missed off the last part of that I notice - the one I pointed out before was the crucial bit of Alan's argument - you know the 'being wrong for everyone' bit.. You can definitely say you think its wrong for you anytime, anywhere but as soon as you reference others you are left with the inconsistent triad I pointed out in reply 281 on this thread.

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I'm not saying that, though.

I am saying that, as I have pointed out above, peoples' opinion on a moral issue is based on many subjective foundations. To say that because they believe something in wrong and would always be, they should also believe in OM, is to say that they should base their belief in the OM on their opinion.
On consistency of opinions to be precise, but that's not contradictory. If I can believe in the objectivity of other universes and accept this is based on my opinions (as it has to be seeing as it is unverifiable) I can also believe in the objectivity of morality and accept this is my opinion. Its not a proof of OM of course (but as you seem to accept that no one is claiming proof then that fine) but its definitely not self-contradictory as I'm not saying the objective existence of other universes or morality is dependent on our opinion for its objective existence.

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Sure, as soon as it stops being self-contradictory and/or a method is presented.

Which should be clear now that it isn't.

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #356 on: July 10, 2015, 10:46:49 PM »
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Did I claim that it expressed everything we want to say about morality?
If morality is a personal response like emotion then the best we could say about something we don't agree with is 'I disapprove of that' because, if your theory of morality is correct then there are no external standards of morality by which we can make judgements about someone else's behaviour if they have a different personal response to it than you do (as you accepted in your reply 301). If there is more to morality than expressing approval then your theory doesn't explain it!

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I was responding to your comment "But in no society, at any point in human history has acts of moral condemnation ever just meant ‘I disapprove of you doing that’"
Which is correct, morality has always been able to express more than just disapproval as your comment above concedes.

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Sure love is an an emotion but its driven by other emotions and reasons. You can reason your way into not loving someone, I've had relationships where it became clear to me via reason we were incompatible.
and

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So do you know accept that love is a mixture of reason and emotion?

I guess no attempt to muster a defence on the changing views point....on to this one then..

All social interactions when they become complex become mixtures of emotions and reasons but that fact doesn't prevent us from asking ‘which of these things does it derive from?’ As explained before, moral realists (some at least) think that cognitive states are both motivational (emotive) and rational at the same time which fits exactly with what you are saying, nevertheless if there are facts involved in morality then we can judge the objective rightness or wrongness of the action against the external standards of those facts. If you think that you are a moral realist. If you don't think you can do that then that's because you need to claim (to sustain your theory) that the facts 'ultimately' rely on individuals/emotional responses rather than the facts, and if that's the case all the criticisms in raised in reply 351 come straight back into play.

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Courts decide what is legal not what is moral.


In cases of sentencing laws try to represent the moral feelings of society, which is why when sentences for sex offenders were lengthened recently this was justified on the grounds that short sentences did not adequately reflect the level of moral condemnation that our society holds towards these crimes.
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The thought of someone stealing evokes in an emotion in me, its not that I 'have' to empathise with the victim its just that I do.

"I think peoples rights of property should be respected." Bold = emotion.

And it may well do, it just doesn't have too as I can make moral judgements dispassionately. For example the idea of respect may well give rise to an emotion in you but it can just as easily not and be based on a rational understanding of what allows people to live and pursue their goals in modern societies easily and free from conflict. The emotion is neither necessary nor sufficient for the moral judgement.
 
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Yes I'm skip most of your drivel as well. Your position is that we decide moral positions differently to those positions that are clearly subjective like taste and love.

We don't.

Its' no surprise you have retreated into assertion over argument seeing as you have now twice failed to defend your position. This is no doubt an embarrassment for you given your triumphalism a few posts back. Sorry about that.


jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #357 on: July 12, 2015, 07:39:51 PM »
All social interactions when they become complex become mixtures of emotions and reasons but that fact doesn't prevent us from asking ‘which of these things does it derive from?’ As explained before, moral realists (some at least) think that cognitive states are both motivational (emotive) and rational at the same time which fits exactly with what you are saying, nevertheless if there are facts involved in morality then we can judge the objective rightness or wrongness of the action against the external standards of those facts. If you think that you are a moral realist. If you don't think you can do that then that's because you need to claim (to sustain your theory) that the facts 'ultimately' rely on individuals/emotional responses rather than the facts, and if that's the case all the criticisms in raised in reply 351 come straight back into play.

No I have moral axioms, based on emotion, reason and experience, from these I derive 'objective rightness or wrongness'. The axioms are not external to me.

I look forward to you demonstrating these moral 'facts'.
Doubt is not a pleasant condition, but certainty is absurd.
- Voltaire

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #358 on: July 13, 2015, 09:25:54 AM »
All social interactions when they become complex become mixtures of emotions and reasons but that fact doesn't prevent us from asking ‘which of these things does it derive from?’ As explained before, moral realists (some at least) think that cognitive states are both motivational (emotive) and rational at the same time which fits exactly with what you are saying, nevertheless if there are facts involved in morality then we can judge the objective rightness or wrongness of the action against the external standards of those facts. If you think that you are a moral realist. If you don't think you can do that then that's because you need to claim (to sustain your theory) that the facts 'ultimately' rely on individuals/emotional responses rather than the facts, and if that's the case all the criticisms in raised in reply 351 come straight back into play.

No I have moral axioms, based on emotion, reason and experience, from these I derive 'objective rightness or wrongness'. The axioms are not external to me.

I look forward to you demonstrating these moral 'facts'.

so much for the 'love' analogy.

No attempt to engage in any of the arguments made at all this time then just a retreat to your axiom statement...a position that doesn't solve any of the problems raised. We change our moral beliefs including core axioms at times because we believe our previous ones were wrong, spouting on about axioms cannot help us with this. An axiom based on your own personal responses is no more a basis for setting objective standards than an analogy with love is and doesn't help with the problem of how we judge others actions right or wrong - something you  have already accepted in post 301....you are not even consistent between your own posts.

As for 'demonstrating moral facts' its blindingly obvious that you are trying to divert the conversation away from your epic failure to answer any of the points raised against your position. If this wasn't clear from the context it should be clear from the fact that you have already told us that you recognise talk of proof of moral facts is a silly question to ask - remember that conversation? It was something like "who said anything about proof?" '...oh shit it was me'. If by demonstrating you don't mean prove then its not clear what you do mean as I have already explained how we would go about discovering moral facts based on the account of objective morality I have given. As this doesn't leave much scope left for interpreting your question its pretty clear that its just something you thought you'd write to try and save face. Come off it Jakswan either answer the criticisms or give it up, you are not fooling anyone.
« Last Edit: July 13, 2015, 11:35:36 AM by Dryghtons Toe »

jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #359 on: July 15, 2015, 08:28:22 AM »
so much for the 'love' analogy.

Still applies I want to focus the debate though.

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your axiom statement...a position that doesn't solve any of the problems raised. We change our moral beliefs including core axioms at times because we believe our previous ones were wrong, spouting on about axioms cannot help us with this.

Getting hysterical does nothing to refute the argument put against you. So if we change our core axioms it isnot because of something 'out there' then the core axioms are subjective.

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An axiom based on your own personal responses is no more a basis for setting objective standards than an analogy with love is and doesn't help with the problem of how we judge others actions right or wrong - something you  have already accepted in post 301....you are not even consistent between your own posts.

There is no 'problem' with how we judge others actions right or wrong. How is saying 'reject P2' saying I accept anything?

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As for 'demonstrating moral facts' its blindingly obvious that you are trying to divert the conversation away from your epic failure to answer any of the points raised against your position.

Look sit down and have a nice cup of tea. Claiming something like 'moral facts' seems to me to be right at the core of the issue so lets stick to the topic at hand. Whilst you childish outbursts are mildly entertaining lets try to keep this sensible.

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I have already explained how we would go about discovering moral facts based on the account of objective morality I have given.

Excellent could you just highlight the post you did this in please.
Doubt is not a pleasant condition, but certainty is absurd.
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Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #360 on: July 17, 2015, 09:34:10 PM »

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Still applies I want to focus the debate though.
Focusing the debate, oh I see is that what you're doing. So glad you explained it because it just looked like you had tried twice to justify your analogy, failed miserably to do so then dropped any attempt at trying to defend it in the face of your failure. Unfortunately the debate is not yours to focus at whim and I equally would like to focus the debate on the inadequacy of the analogy, unless of course you are willing to admit its inadequacy so we can move on. As I've refuted everyone one of your attempts to answer the criticisms of your analogy do you have any other arguments to muster or shall we just accept that you can't because it doesn't work?
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your axiom statement...a position that doesn't solve any of the problems raised. We change our moral beliefs including core axioms at times because we believe our previous ones were wrong, spouting on about axioms cannot help us with this.

Getting hysterical does nothing to refute the argument put against you. So if we change our core axioms it is not because of something 'out there' then the core axioms are subjective.
Nice tactic - instead of answering the criticism you just restate your position but try to mask the fact that that's what your doing by accusations of 'getting hysterical'. It would have worked better perhaps if there was anything remotely in the bit from my post you quoted which was even vaguely hysterical, but as there isn't its pretty clear that its a vain attempt at fluff over substance. The fact we change or core axioms does not in itself imply an external standard of truth, but the fact we do so because we think our old ones are wrong, questions we agonize finding the right answer for, certainly does imply this. If you think our moral intuitions on this are wrong just admit it. As I've argued all along its not impossible to build a consistent anti-realist position, you just cannot do so and claim it explains our morality as it actually is.
 
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There is no 'problem' with how we judge others actions right or wrong. How is saying 'reject P2' saying I accept anything?
The reason the triad is inconsistent is because you cannot on one hand maintain that the wrongness of something is determined by the personal responses of the individual and simultaneously also hold that someone elses answers are wrong when they have personal responses that don’t lead them to think it is. In 301 you recognised this contradiction as you felt the need to reject P2. If judging wrongness was simply reducible to meaning “my personal responses lead me to think X is wrong for me but does not provide a standard by where it is wrong for someone with a different personal response” then this means precisely what I alleged - it reduces a judgement of ‘wrong’ from its normal sense of meaning ‘making a mistake’ to simply meaning ‘I disapprove of X’.
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Look sit down and have a nice cup of tea. Claiming something like 'moral facts' seems to me to be right at the core of the issue so lets stick to the topic at hand. Whilst you childish outbursts are mildly entertaining lets try to keep this sensible.

And seeing as denying them relies on you being able to give an alternative account that makes sense of our moral practice as it exists rather than just making up something else and calling it morality, your ability to defend your alternative “I.e that morality is based on personal responses like love” is right at the heart of the matter so it’s quite legitimate to expect you to be able to deals with the problems raised with your account. You clearly realised this too as you tried twice, but as both of those attempts failed it’s entirely right to ask you to put up or shut up. Can you think of a defence that works, or would alternatively are you going to give up trying and admit that it’s inadequate? It’s a central question in this debate so simply taking a tactic of ‘I’m not talking about this anymore’ really isn’t going to wash. Dressing this up in language of ‘childish outbursts’ might be a little more plausible coming from someone who’s standard posts didn’t consist of 1 line sneers and painfully premature triumphalist outbursts. The good news is you can easily show that my accusations that you are avoiding things you can't answer is wrong, all you have to do is come up with a good argument to defend it. Can you do that or will you just keep trying to change the subject?
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Excellent could you just highlight the post you did this in please.

Yes in a number of posts I have made it clear that the method we go about discovering OM will depend on the account we give of it. As a theist I have given an account of OM rooted in God and I outline this in reply 196. As this account derives its understanding of OM from the flourishing of conscious beings, defined in relation to God’s purpose then we discover moral truth by improving our understanding of our flourishing. This is partly something we do through reason and observation in relation to the physical and psychological facts that allows people to live rich fulfilling lives and the virtues of character necessary to enable these, and partly by deepening our experience of God to gain an insight into his character and purposes. This, like all fields of human discovery will of course be gradual and prone to error and revision in our understanding.

So yet again I've given full answers to your questions,.,,,lets see if in reply  you can finally, for once, answer the criticism of your analogy.

Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #361 on: July 20, 2015, 12:54:42 PM »

...

You are quite clearly implying that I and others are not making honest statements to avoid admitting that OM exists - I.e. making intentionally false statements. So now you are lying about that as well and by that I mean making an intentionally false statement, again.
Let me make this clear. I am not implying you or anyone else is lying. We can all blind ourselves to stuff, me included and you included. What I am saying is that you are being illogical.

Stop being so paranoid.

You are stating that a number of people are making deliberately false statements - which by your own definition is lying.
Let me clarify this then. I am not claiming that people are making intentionally false statements. That would be lying and I am not claiming anyone is doing that.
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Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #362 on: July 20, 2015, 12:57:32 PM »
On reading Alan's reply to Andy, he now seems to be stating that people are or have avoided saying that TACTD(J)FF is morally wrong because they don't want to say it as it will show that they would logically have to accept OM. This is untru in that people have stated that they think this ,as indeed many other things, are wrong. In this case I don't think Alan is deliberately telling the untruth so is not lying, but it seems to me to illustrate that he is so involved in his case, that he is unable to even read what people have written without ending up misrepresenting it.
OK, have just seen this bit. Please ignore my reply just before this reply. :)
Quote


So, I will try once again to make this clear and hope that it filters through. I think TACTDJFF is wrong, as is, in my opinion, TACTDFF, TACTD and TAC, and indeed T. I also think marmite tastes good. The moral position is based on my subjective view of what is right and wrong. The taste position on what I think of as good and bad in eating.
Sticking with the Marmite analogy are you saying that it tastes good independent of how many people think it so? Do I have any obligation to think it tastes good?
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Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #363 on: July 20, 2015, 12:59:54 PM »
TACTDFF is an almost universal agreed no no, but that doesn't make it OM.

The possession of a mobile phone is now an almost universal MUST but there is nothing objective about it.
How does that relate to what I have claimed, i.e. that TACTDFF is morally wrong and it being so is independent of how many people think it so? How does mobile phone ownership fit into such a scheme? If it doesn't, why do you think pointing out that mobile phone possession is at all related to this question.

May I ask why you think TACTDFF is morally wrong? What do you base that conclusion on, please?
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Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #364 on: July 20, 2015, 01:03:04 PM »
Quote
I agree some acts are morally wrong and that this does not depend on me thinking it so.

My beliefs are consistent with morality being subjective.
No, they are not. You have said that some acts are morally wrong and in the second part of the sentence say that they fit the definition of objective morality.

Nope something I think something being morally wrong depends on me thinking it so. Your argument is a busted flush.
Put that in English and I'll reply to it.

I suggest you take a course on comprehension but I'll try to dumb it down for you.
If you think your previous post was grammatically correct or even clear, I suggest you read it again.
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In order for something to be objective it has to be independent of anyone's opinion.
This is incorrect. For it to be objective its status, its veracity has to be such that it is independent of anyone's opinion. That is different from what you wrote.
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I think torture is wrong and that does depend on my opinion.
You have just argued that your opinion (what you think is wrong) is dependent on your opinion. Is that mean to contribute to the discussion?
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I'm being consistent, please its been over a year, this argument surely is over?
Yes, consistently wrong and, apparently, confused over what is being claimed.
Quote
Even you must be running out of obfuscation rabbit holes to run down.
Obfuscation as in jakswan doesn't understand the argument?
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Gordon

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #365 on: July 20, 2015, 01:33:42 PM »
Alan

I noticed you mentioned 'obligation' earlier, and I recall you mentioning this before.

It seems to me that I can reason my way to an opinion that TCTDJFF is always wrong, and many here have already pointed out some of the implications that support this opinion: such as why bother educating our children if it was the case that a passing sociopath torture them to death etc etc etc. I'd imagine that the consensus of opinion would agree with me, to the extent that such conduct would be illegal.

It seems to me then that there are various compelling reasons for me to hold the opinion that TACTDJFF is always wrong to the extent that I am obligated to behave in accordance with my opinion - would you agree?     

jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #366 on: July 21, 2015, 11:53:49 AM »
So to 'demonstrating moral facts'.

Yes in a number of posts I have made it clear that the method we go about discovering OM will depend on the account we give of it. As a theist I have given an account of OM rooted in God and I outline this in reply 196. As this account derives its understanding of OM from the flourishing of conscious beings, defined in relation to God’s purpose then we discover moral truth by improving our understanding of our flourishing. This is partly something we do through reason and observation in relation to the physical and psychological facts that allows people to live rich fulfilling lives and the virtues of character necessary to enable these, and partly by deepening our experience of God to gain an insight into his character and purposes. This, like all fields of human discovery will of course be gradual and prone to error and revision in our understanding.

So it seems to me that you 'determine moral facts' by judging an actions to see if it delivers 'flourishing of conscious beings'.

I'm still not seeing the leap to objective?
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jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #367 on: July 21, 2015, 12:00:46 PM »
You have just argued that your opinion (what you think is wrong) is dependent on your opinion. Is that mean to contribute to the discussion?

It refutes you:-

That is the sort of point I am trying to make on objective morality. If someone agrees with me that an act, any act, is morally wrong and that this does not depend on how many people believe it to be so, they are logically bound to believe in the existence of objective morality.

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Leonard James

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #368 on: July 21, 2015, 12:23:28 PM »
Even if every living person agreed that something is wrong/right, it is only their individual personal opinions. It does NOT mean that there is an objective moral code floating about somewhere beyond our ken

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #369 on: July 22, 2015, 07:00:12 PM »
So to 'demonstrating moral facts'.

Yes in a number of posts I have made it clear that the method we go about discovering OM will depend on the account we give of it. As a theist I have given an account of OM rooted in God and I outline this in reply 196. As this account derives its understanding of OM from the flourishing of conscious beings, defined in relation to God’s purpose then we discover moral truth by improving our understanding of our flourishing. This is partly something we do through reason and observation in relation to the physical and psychological facts that allows people to live rich fulfilling lives and the virtues of character necessary to enable these, and partly by deepening our experience of God to gain an insight into his character and purposes. This, like all fields of human discovery will of course be gradual and prone to error and revision in our understanding.

So it seems to me that you 'determine moral facts' by judging an actions to see if it delivers 'flourishing of conscious beings'.

I'm still not seeing the leap to objective?

Ok well if you make an argument and defend your case or alternatively admit that you can't then I'll be happy to explain to too you.

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #370 on: July 22, 2015, 07:01:32 PM »
Even if every living person agreed that something is wrong/right, it is only their individual personal opinions. It does NOT mean that there is an objective moral code floating about somewhere beyond our ken

No one thinks that objective morality is dependent on people's opinions. This has been clarifies many times by both Alan and by me.

BeRational

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #371 on: July 22, 2015, 09:38:08 PM »
Even if every living person agreed that something is wrong/right, it is only their individual personal opinions. It does NOT mean that there is an objective moral code floating about somewhere beyond our ken

No one thinks that objective morality is dependent on people's opinions. This has been clarifies many times by both Alan and by me.

If I give you a moral question, can you give me the objective moral answer?

Is same sex marriage objectively morrally correct?
I see gullible people, everywhere!

Leonard James

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #372 on: July 23, 2015, 06:28:11 AM »
Even if every living person agreed that something is wrong/right, it is only their individual personal opinions. It does NOT mean that there is an objective moral code floating about somewhere beyond our ken

No one thinks that objective morality is dependent on people's opinions. This has been clarifies many times by both Alan and by me.

OK, sorry ... I must have misunderstood.

Why does anybody believe that there is an objective morality somewhere out there?

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #373 on: July 23, 2015, 07:21:06 AM »
Even if every living person agreed that something is wrong/right, it is only their individual personal opinions. It does NOT mean that there is an objective moral code floating about somewhere beyond our ken

No one thinks that objective morality is dependent on people's opinions. This has been clarifies many times by both Alan and by me.

If I give you a moral question, can you give me the objective moral answer?

Is same sex marriage objectively morrally correct?

Yes it is.

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #374 on: July 23, 2015, 08:08:12 AM »
Even if every living person agreed that something is wrong/right, it is only their individual personal opinions. It does NOT mean that there is an objective moral code floating about somewhere beyond our ken

No one thinks that objective morality is dependent on people's opinions. This has been clarifies many times by both Alan and by me.

OK, sorry ... I must have misunderstood.

Why does anybody believe that there is an objective morality somewhere out there?

Moral realists think morality is objective because core elements of our moral practice implicitly assume objective moral truth and so morality as we practice it cannot be maintained without this assumption. So those of us who do not believe our morality is distorted and want to be consistent in our beliefs accept that morality is objective – including as it happens large numbers of atheist philosophers.