Author Topic: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?  (Read 106304 times)

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #550 on: August 05, 2015, 04:31:13 PM »

You are asserting morality is objective you have the burden of proof.

Sadly for him, there isn't any. Moral laws only exist in the brains of the individuals subscribing to them ... nowhere else.

Oh Leonard you are over compensating now. I understand you are a bit embarrassed that you were so adamant that morality was ‘more that just disapproval’ yet couldn’t justify why this was thus perfectly illustrating my point and ended up endorsing the lord Voldermort position on morality… but simply repeating what you think over and over with no argument isn’t establishing anything. We know you don’t believe in God or moral truth etc. Go and find some uninspired fundamentalist Christian you can start a thread repeating God doesn’t exist, yes he does, no he doesn’t, yes he does,, ad infinitum ….it’ll keep you both happy for ages.

Leonard James

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #551 on: August 05, 2015, 07:39:51 PM »

You are asserting morality is objective you have the burden of proof.

Sadly for him, there isn't any. Moral laws only exist in the brains of the individuals subscribing to them ... nowhere else.

Oh Leonard you are over compensating now. I understand you are a bit embarrassed that you were so adamant that morality was ‘more that just disapproval’ yet couldn’t justify why this was thus perfectly illustrating my point and ended up endorsing the lord Voldermort position on morality… but simply repeating what you think over and over with no argument isn’t establishing anything. We know you don’t believe in God or moral truth etc. Go and find some uninspired fundamentalist Christian you can start a thread repeating God doesn’t exist, yes he does, no he doesn’t, yes he does,, ad infinitum ….it’ll keep you both happy for ages.

What's up, DT? Feeling neglected? Nobody taking any notice of you?

Never mind dear, in JC's words ... have a cookie! :)

jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #552 on: August 05, 2015, 10:06:54 PM »
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You are asserting morality is objective you have the burden of proof.

Oh I’m happy to explain it, I’m just not going to engage if you aren’t. You don’t get to dictate the terms of the debate, cower off when you can’t support your argument and expect me to keep jumping to your tune. I’ve gone into detail about my position while  you are asserting morality is subjective which is no less of an assertion and if it is at odds with our moral intuitions certainly requires an explanation. As its this ‘add odds with our intuitions’ bit you have failed to answer then this is entirely a reasonable ask

Our moral intuitions are subjective, evidence for this is not two people agree 100% on every moral question.

I'm going to ignore your more hysterical ramblings.

I'm just not buying buying the whole 'its not like taste therefore morality is objective' thing. Take me through it again, without the rhetoric, by means of an example perhaps same sex sex.
Doubt is not a pleasant condition, but certainty is absurd.
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Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #553 on: August 06, 2015, 07:08:03 AM »

You are asserting morality is objective you have the burden of proof.

Sadly for him, there isn't any. Moral laws only exist in the brains of the individuals subscribing to them ... nowhere else.

Oh Leonard you are over compensating now. I understand you are a bit embarrassed that you were so adamant that morality was ‘more that just disapproval’ yet couldn’t justify why this was thus perfectly illustrating my point and ended up endorsing the lord Voldermort position on morality… but simply repeating what you think over and over with no argument isn’t establishing anything. We know you don’t believe in God or moral truth etc. Go and find some uninspired fundamentalist Christian you can start a thread repeating God doesn’t exist, yes he does, no he doesn’t, yes he does,, ad infinitum ….it’ll keep you both happy for ages.

What's up, DT? Feeling neglected? Nobody taking any notice of you?

Never mind dear, in JC's words ... have a cookie! :)

Ohh never neglected there's something here for me every day ... Still more interesting if its an actual arguement than some snipe from someone who's attempt to make one ended up as an embarrassment to his own position. I'm happy to engage with you again Leonard if thats what you want, just that every other time you retreat into 'i don't understand the arguement'. Would you like me to get back to the detail of what you were saying or not? I thought I was giving you a break after your position imploded before by not munching on your Jugular but I will if you really want me too??

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #554 on: August 06, 2015, 07:11:12 AM »
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You are asserting morality is objective you have the burden of proof.

Oh I’m happy to explain it, I’m just not going to engage if you aren’t. You don’t get to dictate the terms of the debate, cower off when you can’t support your argument and expect me to keep jumping to your tune. I’ve gone into detail about my position while  you are asserting morality is subjective which is no less of an assertion and if it is at odds with our moral intuitions certainly requires an explanation. As its this ‘add odds with our intuitions’ bit you have failed to answer then this is entirely a reasonable ask

Our moral intuitions are subjective, evidence for this is not two people agree 100% on every moral question.

I'm going to ignore your more hysterical ramblings.

I'm just not buying buying the whole 'its not like taste therefore morality is objective' thing. Take me through it again, without the rhetoric, by means of an example perhaps same sex sex.

This is the worst argument yet..disagreement is proof of subjectivity ..i see right because people never disagree about factual stuff .  ::)

Happy to take you through it again once you've tackled the argument s you ignored. Let me know when you do that right :)

jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #555 on: August 06, 2015, 08:20:36 AM »
Since this thread is very long and was the second one for Al to offer a defence of his position maybe new thread time.

Several people have refuted Al's position and since he isn't able to defend his position we just as well leave this thread die.

http://www.religionethics.co.uk/index.php?topic=10684.0
« Last Edit: August 06, 2015, 08:47:44 AM by jakswan »
Doubt is not a pleasant condition, but certainty is absurd.
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Andy

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #556 on: August 06, 2015, 10:12:07 AM »

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The nature of our experience/phenomenology/practice of morality is not morality itself. You are taking our "core intuitions" (the values which you base your moral realism on) to be axiomatically objectively morally right, basically because god says so. This is the epitome of you invoking god to first believe in OM. Moral realism doesn't get you to OM, never mind get you there first, if you understand that the values you base moral judgements on first need to be shown to be objectively morally right themselves.

I've not presented our experience/phenomenology etc as morality itself which is why my argument has never been 'morality assumes objectivity therefore its objective' but rather 'morality assumes objectivity therefore either our moral intuitions are correct and it is objective Or morality is distorted'. I have been abundantly clear about this and stated it many times. For those of us who do feel the strength and centrality of moral truth as being fundamental to the human condition then God provides the best explanation for those intuitions as the grounds for objective moral truth. Its an argument to God from our intuitions not the other way around.

 
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Yes, why is it good? DT said it's because it's rooted in god - defined in relation to god's purpose, but you should be able to show that it's good without invoking god because you try and use the existence of OM to conclude god, not the other way around.

No I don't. If I showed it was good without God then the second part of the moral argument doesn't work. The reason I think it is good is because I reason from my moral intuitions.
 
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Then tell Alan and WLC it's backwards, not me.
The order of the premises is unimportant, its the direction of travel from our intuitions to God rather than the other way around.

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No, it would seem after analysing your position, you conclude that god is the explanation because god is the grounder of what is moral, which includes the foundational values - the "core intuitions" by which you make judgements. You have failed to show that these values are objective morals without invoking god.

I don't want to show them without invoking God. Gods sort of the point of the moral argument for God! But you are trying to claim that I have to invoke God in order to establish that our core intuitions about morality implicitly assume objectivity - but I don't and I haven't, I have relied entirely on examples from our moral reasoning and moral phenomenology, giving the dissenter an alternative route to take from this if they prefer and are willing to be consistent about its implications.

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Yea, if it is a fact. Now it's your job to turn that "if" into an is. If god is your only ginnel for doing that, then you're not at god being the best explanation, but the explanation.

Well as I'm arguing for God I'd be quite happy with that however there are different constructions of an argument for OM that an atheist could take I think although I do think these become problematic at key points which is why God is the best explanation. I'm not going to spend my time giving an atheist argument for OM though that I don't support and I don't need to despite your mischaracterisation of the argument.

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Yes, I get it about your moral realism. An atheist moral realist would state something along the lines of (to paraphrase Matt Dillahunty), we are physical being in a physical universe with physical laws, and our judgements are at the mercy of this physical reality. Basically, they are science-apt - they are truth-apt. The atheist will stop there but you go that step further and state that these truths have been put there by the creator of this physical reality, or something along those simplified lines.

Now we've got that out of the way, I say so fucking what? I bold your assertion and ask you to demonstrate it, to which I again just expect you to leap to god. I don't see it as a fact that it should be valued, only that it is valued.

There are other ways the atheist could go I think than the route you suggest. But to defend my argument and not theirs, the answer to how I argue to it is given above and is argued to from our moral intuitions, the 'so fucking what' of the bit you highlighted is that if my account is correct then the fact/value gap is something we breach this side of God, even though its explanation is grounded in God as, on the account I have given, teleological facts ARE facts that exist in contingent reality. I've also never claimed we can prove OM but I do think we can demonstrate that it is implicit within our morality as practiced and that this leaves us with a choice of either accepting God as the grounds or viewing morality as fundamentally distorted and accepting the consequences of this. For those of us who trust our moral intuitions and also reason that God is the best explanation of OM then we have reason to believe in God.

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How about you say what these problems are instead of poisoning the well?

I don't think there are any to worry a serious and sensible theology.

Seems we are getting to the point where we are repeating ourselves and almost talking past one another. I'd rather just respond to your next post to move things along than go over old ground again, unless there is something you would like me to respond to here.

The only thing I will say is that you said there are problems for atheists with morality being grounded in god. I wanted you to say what they were.

Andy

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #557 on: August 06, 2015, 10:32:25 AM »

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Yes, I get it about your moral realism. An atheist moral realist would state something along the lines of (to paraphrase Matt Dillahunty), we...

Interesting when I read your supposed summary of an Atheist moral realism I didn’t recognise it as anything any of the leading realist philosophers would say and to be honest I’d never heard of Marr Dillahunty. Having had a google of him there is no wonder he’s some atheist micro-celeb, not one of the many serious atheists philosophers who have championed  moral realism.

I don't think it matters who said what, leading realist philosopher or not, it's just something I vaguely remember being said.

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I have no idea if he is a realist or not and its quite right to say that simply because many atheists are realists doesn’t makes realism right, what it does demonstrate however is that the motivation for realism is not God – the reason these atheist moral realists are moral realists is exactly the same as the reason I am  - it’s our core intuitions about morality and  the implicit assumptions embedded  in our moral experience. Whether or not they are right, their existence and motivation for realism demonstrates your assertion that belief in OM starts from God is wholly incorrect.

Which is to misunderstand my point that moral realism doesn't equal OM. I think they're just as wrong as you are in claiming morality is objective based on moral realism. My argument is that I could quite easily be a moral realist yet conclude that the moral values/intuitions it's based on are subjective.

Yes, your argument is that your intuitions point to god - it's more than just having those intuitions, but that you should also have them. I don't see how you make that conclusion without first invoking god to give you that assurance, as no pandering to moral realism will get you there.

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #558 on: August 07, 2015, 07:08:26 AM »
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Seems we are getting to the point where we are repeating ourselves and almost talking past one another. I'd rather just respond to your next post to move things along than go over old ground again, unless there is something you would like me to respond to here.

As you wish

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I don't think it matters who said what, leading realist philosopher or not, it's just something I vaguely remember being said.
I think it matters if you are presenting this as a prime example of atheist realism to a degree that this is 'out of the way' in the discussion....as some of the most prominent contributors to the debate on meta-ethics in the last half century have been both realists and atheists it is remiss to present something said by some inconsequential randomer as the embodiment of that position. As neither you or I support the position anyway I'm not sure why you feel the need to go there at all.

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Which is to misunderstand my point that moral realism doesn't equal OM. I think they're just as wrong as you are in claiming morality is objective based on moral realism. My argument is that I could quite easily be a moral realist yet conclude that the moral values/intuitions it's based on are subjective.

No idea what you mean here. Moral realism is moral objectivism - they mean the same thing and are interchangeable terms. Some versions of moral realism problematise the concept of objectivity but they all still hold that there morality is still a form of objectivity and deny that moral values are subjective.

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Yes, your argument is that your intuitions point to god - it's more than just having those intuitions, but that you should also have them. I don't see how you make that conclusion without first invoking god to give you that assurance, as no pandering to moral realism will get you there.

I don't argue that you should have them if by 'should' you mean some kind of irresistible conclusion that you derive from the fact of having those intuitions (and if you don't mean this I don't know what you mean). I have argued that people have a choice of either trusting their intuitions or accepting that their morality is distorted. People may well want to trust their intuitions as they that the feel the force of moral truth and understand its centrality to the human condition. When we do philosophy many of the positions we take come down to our intuitions particularly in relation to metaphysical issues. One of the task of philosophy is to articulate the implications of our intuitions and draw out their implications. The moral argument for God is like every argument, powerful for those who accept the premise not for those who don't. For people who trust their moral intuitions then they should follow the logic of this and embrace the conclusion. Alan too has stated clearly that his version of the argument is also about consistency of belief in the same way.
« Last Edit: August 07, 2015, 07:10:04 AM by Dryghtons Toe »

Andy

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #559 on: August 07, 2015, 10:21:45 AM »
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I don't think it matters who said what, leading realist philosopher or not, it's just something I vaguely remember being said.
I think it matters if you are presenting this as a prime example of atheist realism to a degree that this is 'out of the way' in the discussion....as some of the most prominent contributors to the debate on meta-ethics in the last half century have been both realists and atheists it is remiss to present something said by some inconsequential randomer as the embodiment of that position. As neither you or I support the position anyway I'm not sure why you feel the need to go there at all.

It was a phrase stuck in my mind that I think concisely draws to the point you have yourself made - that morality is truth-apt. Who says it doesn't matter as claims stand and fall on their own merits. If you want to go down the route of only being able to quote and reference people who you think are worthy to talk about and make points about morality/moral realism, then perhaps you shouldn't be bothering discussing it on this forum. Am I not some "inconsequential randomer" too? I suppose you could fall under that category to me, but Matt D doesn't.

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Which is to misunderstand my point that moral realism doesn't equal OM. I think they're just as wrong as you are in claiming morality is objective based on moral realism. My argument is that I could quite easily be a moral realist yet conclude that the moral values/intuitions it's based on are subjective.

No idea what you mean here. Moral realism is moral objectivism - they mean the same thing and are interchangeable terms. Some versions of moral realism problematise the concept of objectivity but they all still hold that there morality is still a form of objectivity and deny that moral values are subjective.

Then they should have no problem in discovering the objective moral truth that exists external to themselves that shows that they should value what they value. If not, then it's unreasonable to believe that morality is objective because the foundation can only be taken back to their subjectivity.

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Yes, your argument is that your intuitions point to god - it's more than just having those intuitions, but that you should also have them. I don't see how you make that conclusion without first invoking god to give you that assurance, as no pandering to moral realism will get you there.

I don't argue that you should have them if by 'should' you mean some kind of irresistible conclusion that you derive from the fact of having those intuitions (and if you don't mean this I don't know what you mean). I have argued that people have a choice of either trusting their intuitions or accepting that their morality is distorted. People may well want to trust their intuitions as they that the feel the force of moral truth and understand its centrality to the human condition. When we do philosophy many of the positions we take come down to our intuitions particularly in relation to metaphysical issues. One of the task of philosophy is to articulate the implications of our intuitions and draw out their implications. The moral argument for God is like every argument, powerful for those who accept the premise not for those who don't. For people who trust their moral intuitions then they should follow the logic of this and embrace the conclusion. Alan too has stated clearly that his version of the argument is also about consistency of belief in the same way.

Those who take the axiomatic approach by first trusting that their moral intuitions are themselves morally right to be held, are invoking OM from the off and not concluding it. Just because someone trusts their values/intuitions, it doesn't automatically follow that they regard those values/intuitions to be objectively right. You can argue how those values/intuitions came to be what they are, which is where god comes in for you as the best explanation, but to me that's a conversation ender.

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #560 on: August 10, 2015, 07:05:06 AM »
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It was a phrase stuck in my mind that I think concisely draws to the point you have yourself made - that morality is truth-apt. Who says it doesn't matter as claims stand and fall on their own merits. If you want to go down the route of only being able to quote and reference people who you think are worthy to talk about and make points about morality/moral realism, then perhaps you shouldn't be bothering discussing it on this forum. Am I not some "inconsequential randomer" too? I suppose you could fall under that category to me, but Matt D doesn't.
I see… so you are equating my point that to represent atheist moral realism to the point that it is (in your words) “out of the way” by quoting a view that is not remotely representative of the most accomplished thinkers who represent that view as problematic, with the view that only the most accomplished thinkers are worthy to discuss ideas at all….hmm how to describe that..erm disingenuous maybe? Wilfully dishonest? Perhaps a misunderstanding on your part is the most charitable interpretation….

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Then they should have no problem in discovering the objective moral truth that exists external to themselves that shows that they should value what they value. If not, then it's unreasonable to believe that morality is objective because the foundation can only be taken back to their subjectivity.

All moral realists as far as I know think it is possible to discover moral truth. That doesn’t mean of course this is just a process like reading off a list of course, or a verifiable one or one easy to do without error…but why should it be? There are many other objective questions to which this is also the case.

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Those who take the axiomatic approach by first trusting that their moral intuitions are themselves morally right to be held, are invoking OM from the off and not concluding it.

Again you want to jump to the conclusion to force an imagined circularity that does not exist. When we’ve talked of our moral intuitions I’ve given examples of the way we reason about morality, look for the right answer when we change our moral views and are willing to assign judgements of right or wrong to others who do not share our feelings. The objective implications of our moral practice are implicit in it – something we draw out by examining it. We don’t say ‘I intuit OM therefore OM’ and we think about what this would mean for in the broader understanding of our lives.

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Just because someone trusts their values/intuitions, it doesn't automatically follow that they regard those values/intuitions to be objectively right.


No its possible that they aren't hence option B to accept our morality as a distortion. However its also important to be clear that you are not confusing practical intuitions (like it’s wrong to cheat) with structural/theoretical intuitions such as how we go about making our moral decisions or the status of those decisions which is what I am talking about here. As those intuitions are just that moral questions have right answers that’s exactly what it means unless we can give an account that makes sense of moral truth other than it being objective. This is what the debate has been about and none of the accounts that have been given have been able to make sense of morality as we practice it in anti-realist terms – they are all quite happy to discuss it until it gets to bits they can’t answer then it turns into a ‘lets not talk about this anymore, lets talk about the foundations of moral truth instead’. That’s ok if you want to be consistent and say that morality as we practice it is a distortion and that these key elements are illusions but it’s a step most here seem to shy away from taking,.. certainly one they are silent on when it is put to them.


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You can argue how those values/intuitions came to be what they are, which is where god comes in for you as the best explanation, but to me that's a conversation ender.

And for someone who is committed to atheism that’s understandable as long as you are prepared to be consistent about what the consequences of saying our moral practice and phenomenology is distorted, with key elements of it being illusions. For someone who isn’t committed to atheism though, the recognition of the implicit assumption of objectivity within our morality coupled with an understanding of the centrality of this in defining key aspects of our humanity is good reason to consider how such objectivity might be possible. As God is the best way to do this (or apparently the only way to do this in your view) then such considerations can quite validly form part of a cumulative case for belief in God.

jakswan

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #561 on: August 10, 2015, 10:41:59 AM »
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You are asserting morality is objective you have the burden of proof.

Oh I’m happy to explain it, I’m just not going to engage if you aren’t. You don’t get to dictate the terms of the debate, cower off when you can’t support your argument and expect me to keep jumping to your tune. I’ve gone into detail about my position while  you are asserting morality is subjective which is no less of an assertion and if it is at odds with our moral intuitions certainly requires an explanation. As its this ‘add odds with our intuitions’ bit you have failed to answer then this is entirely a reasonable ask

Our moral intuitions are subjective, evidence for this is not two people agree 100% on every moral question.

I'm going to ignore your more hysterical ramblings.

I'm just not buying buying the whole 'its not like taste therefore morality is objective' thing. Take me through it again, without the rhetoric, by means of an example perhaps same sex sex.

This is the worst argument yet..disagreement is proof of subjectivity ..i see right because people never disagree about factual stuff .  ::)

Happy to take you through it again once you've tackled the argument s you ignored. Let me know when you do that right :)

In case you missed ti I started a new thread for you.
Doubt is not a pleasant condition, but certainty is absurd.
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Andy

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #562 on: August 10, 2015, 12:43:35 PM »
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It was a phrase stuck in my mind that I think concisely draws to the point you have yourself made - that morality is truth-apt. Who says it doesn't matter as claims stand and fall on their own merits. If you want to go down the route of only being able to quote and reference people who you think are worthy to talk about and make points about morality/moral realism, then perhaps you shouldn't be bothering discussing it on this forum. Am I not some "inconsequential randomer" too? I suppose you could fall under that category to me, but Matt D doesn't.
I see… so you are equating my point that to represent atheist moral realism to the point that it is (in your words) “out of the way” by quoting a view that is not remotely representative of the most accomplished thinkers who represent that view as problematic, with the view that only the most accomplished thinkers are worthy to discuss ideas at all….hmm how to describe that..erm disingenuous maybe? Wilfully dishonest? Perhaps a misunderstanding on your part is the most charitable interpretation….

This is perfectly simple - I paraphrased someone to get to the conclusion that moral realism declares that morality is truth-apt. You agree with that, so that should be that. You seem to want pick over an insignificance for what I can only gauge to be for the sake of being argumentative.

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All moral realists as far as I know think it is possible to discover moral truth. That doesn’t mean of course this is just a process like reading off a list of course, or a verifiable one or one easy to do without error…but why should it be? There are many other objective questions to which this is also the case.

Then if I'm to be convinced that morality is objective, then I require the objective facts behind the morality of our foundational values. Really, this has nothing to do with moral realism, only that moral realism would have to lead you to conclude that your foundational values have objective worth. I want to know why I should value human flourishing, not just understand that I do and take it as given as objective.

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Again you want to jump to the conclusion to force an imagined circularity that does not exist. When we’ve talked of our moral intuitions I’ve given examples of the way we reason about morality, look for the right answer when we change our moral views and are willing to assign judgements of right or wrong to others who do not share our feelings. The objective implications of our moral practice are implicit in it – something we draw out by examining it. We don’t say ‘I intuit OM therefore OM’ and we think about what this would mean for in the broader understanding of our lives.

The way we reason about morality isn't morality, though. You keep doing this. Perhaps this is a fundamental disagreement and why we're getting nowhere, because you see morality as how it's used and applied and I don't. We can apply objective standards to anything we apply values or rules to, but that doesn't make those values and rules objective.

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Just because someone trusts their values/intuitions, it doesn't automatically follow that they regard those values/intuitions to be objectively right.


No its possible that they aren't hence option B to accept our morality as a distortion. However its also important to be clear that you are not confusing practical intuitions (like it’s wrong to cheat) with structural/theoretical intuitions such as how we go about making our moral decisions or the status of those decisions which is what I am talking about here. As those intuitions are just that moral questions have right answers that’s exactly what it means unless we can give an account that makes sense of moral truth other than it being objective. This is what the debate has been about and none of the accounts that have been given have been able to make sense of morality as we practice it in anti-realist terms – they are all quite happy to discuss it until it gets to bits they can’t answer then it turns into a ‘lets not talk about this anymore, lets talk about the foundations of moral truth instead’. That’s ok if you want to be consistent and say that morality as we practice it is a distortion and that these key elements are illusions but it’s a step most here seem to shy away from taking,.. certainly one they are silent on when it is put to them.

It's not a distortion, but an acknowledgement that their values are the only thing they can base moral judgements on. That there are objective ways to best achieve those values has no bearing whatsoever on the nature of morality if their foundation can only be taken back as far as something subjective. There's nothing inconsistent about that, nothing distorted, no illusion, not even for a moral realist, because the practice of morality isn't morality itself.


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You can argue how those values/intuitions came to be what they are, which is where god comes in for you as the best explanation, but to me that's a conversation ender.

And for someone who is committed to atheism that’s understandable as long as you are prepared to be consistent about what the consequences of saying our moral practice and phenomenology is distorted, with key elements of it being illusions. For someone who isn’t committed to atheism though, the recognition of the implicit assumption of objectivity within our morality coupled with an understanding of the centrality of this in defining key aspects of our humanity is good reason to consider how such objectivity might be possible. As God is the best way to do this (or apparently the only way to do this in your view) then such considerations can quite validly form part of a cumulative case for belief in God.

"Committed to atheism"? No, I'm committed to explanation, as regardless of whether or not one could come up with a naturalistic explanation for objective morality, you can always plonk god on the end to explain how/why that naturalistic explanation exists.

And if you think I see a god as the only way in which moral objectivity is plausible, then you're under some serious misunderstanding.
« Last Edit: August 10, 2015, 12:45:32 PM by Andy »

Dryghtons Toe

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #563 on: August 11, 2015, 10:46:31 AM »
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This is perfectly simple - I paraphrased someone to get to the conclusion that moral realism declares that morality is truth-apt. You agree with that, so that should be that. You seem to want pick over an insignificance for what I can only gauge to be for the sake of being argumentative.

And you also staw man-ed my objection into being something about no one but experts being able to say anything. My concern was the way you presented the argument as getting atheist realism “out of the way” by reference to a random statement that is not representative of atheist realism.

 
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Then if I'm to be convinced that morality is objective, then I require the objective facts behind the morality of our foundational values. Really, this has nothing to do with moral realism, only that moral realism would have to lead you to conclude that your foundational values have objective worth. I want to know why I should value human flourishing, not just understand that I do and take it as given as objective.

Actually from an Aristotelian perspective it is not required that you value human flourishing per se but simply your own, although an Aristotelian concept of flourishing is not the thin idea that you find utilised in some accounts. Nevertheless I digress, to respond to the above and also this:

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"Committed to atheism"? No, I'm committed to explanation, as regardless of whether or not one could come up with a naturalistic explanation for objective morality, you can always plonk god on the end to explain how/why that naturalistic explanation exists.

You seem to be missing the point of the role of God in grounding moral truth. When realists point to the flourishing of moral beings as a moral fact they are claiming it as a basic moral truth, not derived from anything else. I may argue that gay marriage is right based on contingent truths which have importance that is derived from basic moral facts but the move from a basic moral fact like human flourishing to God is a different kind of explanation than a derivative. Realists, including many atheist realists don't think basic moral facts are derived from anything else -they are just true. Everyone including the most ardent reductionist-atheist-materialist believes there are things in the universe that are ‘just true’ in that they are not derived from anything else - the laws of quantum physics or basic particles for example. Moral realists of all stripes think that basic moral truths are part of the basic things of the universe that are just true - we don't try to deduce them from God by saying something like “its true because God said so"...its a claim that values are the sorts of thing that form part of the basic facts about the universe. God’s role in the explanation isn't that he is a final step in a line of derived facts, he isn't - the basic moral facts are the end of the line of derived facts - for theists God is rather the explanation for why values are the sort of things that form part of the basic facts of the universe.

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The way we reason about morality isn't morality, though. You keep doing this. Perhaps this is a fundamental disagreement and why we're getting nowhere, because you see morality as how it's used and applied and I don't. We can apply objective standards to anything we apply values or rules to, but that doesn't make those values and rules objective.

If you mean morality as a social practice can be distorted in its assumptions from what is possibly true in relation to metaphysical claims, that's not impossible as I have said it’s a choice the anti-realist has to face up too...but if you mean morality isn't our moral practices and moral reasoning then that's not true, that's exactly what morality is - what else do you think it is beyond the way we reason and make decisions about right and wrong? That's the definition of morality! As for second bit, I have no idea what you mean - if a standard is objective it precludes the fact that it is arbitrarily applied by definition. If you think morality is something over and above the way we reason and make decisions about right and wrong then please tell…. Any account of morality that you can give which does not explain key features of morality like how we reason or our moral phenomenology is not a theory of morality (at least not a good one) it’s a theory of something else you are calling morality.

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It's not a distortion, but an acknowledgement that their values are the only thing they can base moral judgements on. That there are objective ways to best achieve those values has no bearing whatsoever on the nature of morality if their foundation can only be taken back as far as something subjective. There's nothing inconsistent about that, nothing distorted, no illusion, not even for a moral realist, because the practice of morality isn't morality itself.

There is something distorted if moral values are subjective if by subjective you mean cognitive judgements that are subjectively true. Truth is not something that can be relativised in the same way motion can and still have a meaning. For example, if Dan says "eating meat is wrong" is subjectively true then this means that this sentence means exactly the same thing as "Dan thinks eating meat is wrong". But this second sentence is a purely descriptive sentence that anyone can agree with no matter what their views about eating meat - by relativising the notion of truth we rob it of any normative content at all....not a subjective version that is still morality - its bleached of any moral content.

If alternatively you are saying it is derived from a non-cognitive affective state then it absolutely is a distortion as a key element of our moral reasoning is that when we alter our moral opinions (including at times our core opinions) we do so because we think our old views were incorrect. If a moral theory can't account for such core elements of morality then that is exactly what it means to say it is distorted.

Realists aren’t claiming that it goes back to something subjective. We are claiming that it goes back to something that is objective which makes perfect sense of our moral reasoning and phenomenology.

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And if you think I see a god as the only way in which moral objectivity is plausible, then you're under some serious misunderstanding.

You yourself have argued this against my weaker claim of god being the best explanation - its only because you are now misappropriating the term objective to derivatives from subjective opinions that you are now claiming this last point, but this is just semantic sleight-of-hand.

Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #564 on: August 11, 2015, 07:39:33 PM »
Alien

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I'd be interested to know why our atheist friends think that human flourishing is morally good (apart from wanting it to be so). What do you think?

Simple, evolution has found this idea useful in keeping us alive to pass on our genes.

There is no more to it than that.
I was asking about it being good, not just useful.

It is good because that is the label that we give to useful things.

It is not in some way objectively good, just good because we place a value on survival.

It's that simple.
So defeating the Nazis was merely "useful"? In your opinion "gay marriage" is merely "useful". Avoidance of unnecessary pain in patients dying of cancer is merely "useful"? Stopping the physical abuse of children is merely "useful"?

Seriously?

Yes.

Do you not think it useful?

Seriously?
Yes, it is useful, but that is not what I asked. As I said above, I was asking about it being good, not just useful. The Nazis found it useful to kill Jews. Does that mean that what the Nazis did was good?
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Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #565 on: August 11, 2015, 07:44:45 PM »
So basically, when I asked you to do it without invoking god, you can't? So as I've said aplenty, your argument for OM has only ever been circular.
No, you missed my, "We can't prove it all the way (since, unless there is an original cause/ground) it is an infinite regress, yet there seems to be no good reason to think otherwise." You have also missed/ignored the definition of objective morality, i.e. that OM exists if there is at least one example of something being morally right or morally wrong independent of how many people think it so. A number of people here, not just Christians, have said that TACTDJFF is (always) morally wrong, though they then go on to be much more open to the possibility of their being wrong than on any other moral question I have seen. If they do indeed think that torturing a child to death just for fun (that being the complete motivation) then they are thereby agreeing that OM does indeed exist (since it is the one example we need), though they they go on to contradict themselves by saying that OM does not exist.

Again, the same misidentification of what morality is. You, like DT, are just arguing here for moral realism. Anyone, theist or atheist, who is basing TACTDJFF always being wrong are basing that on a fundamental, core value of human flourishing, well being or whatever. If I valued the flourishing of ants, lithium, the fluffiness of mash, or (insert whatever you like) more than anything else, then you could find ways of achieving those goals that are better than other ways, to the point where you could potentially scale them so you have one way as "the best", dictated by the reality in which all of this is happening. But all of that means nothing if you can't get passed your own subjective valuation.
My valuation of the morality of something might well be subjective, though that would be a failure on my part, I would think (or at least partial failure). However, the point is whether there is anything which is morally wrong/right and whose moral wrongness/rightness does not depend on how many people think it so. That is the definition of objective morality which is under discussion.
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Well isn't that the whole point of the subjective view, that it's from their own standpoint and that they can't point to anything external to themselves to conclude that it's morally good? It's their value and there's no evidence to point to that value having objective worth. Personally, I don't think it's right or wrong for humans to flourish, I just want them to, probably most simply because I am one. I'm under no pretence that I can turn my is into an ought.
I continue to look forward to hearing from those who think that the flourishing of humans/sentient beings is morally good why they think it so.

I'd be interested in your thoughts about whether there is any "ought" in life. Do you think I ought not use the term "ought"? If you think that the term "ought" has some meaning, please do explain why you think it has.

Thanks for the interesting discussion.

Yes, I think there are oughts, but they're based on valuations. You ought to score more goals than the other team if you value the three points. You ought to eat marmite (keep the theme going) sandwiches instead of battery acid if you value your health. Now whether I ought to value what I value is a different thing.
Yes and thus I ask you whether you should value the wellbeing of a child being tortured to death just for fun more than any right the torturer might have to have fun. I would suggest that it is. Do you agree?
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Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #566 on: August 11, 2015, 07:46:39 PM »
Yes, Andy, as usual, has teased out something which has always baffled me.   Some moral schemes seem to be based on a notion of human flourishing, as if this offered an objective base.   I just don't get that, so maybe I have a screw missing in my brain.   As Andy said again, I want human flourishing, because I am human.  If I was a shark, I might want human bodies in large chunks, yum yum.   The oughts are fine, but they are no more than flourishes, for me at any rate.  I mean, it all seems so irrevocably subjective to me.
Would you have any problem with making your mind up if you saw a child being tortured to death just for fun? Would you think, "Well, this seems so irrevocably subjective to me that I can't make my mind up whether what he is doing is morally right or wrong or amoral"? I don't think you would. At least I hope not.
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Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #567 on: August 11, 2015, 07:49:36 PM »
I was listening to the latest Podcast in the series 'Philosophy Bites', and although the topic was 'Speciesism' (and well worth a listen) the interviewee, Shelly Kagan, was outlining that many views on this were best thought of as being moral intuitions.

When listening it occurred to me that my view that 'TACTDJFF is wrong' might well be a moral intuition, albeit I can also think of practical reasons why it would be a bad thing for society at large, and I also recognise that my view is part of a near universal consensus. Even so, it seems to me that my moral intuition alone provides a sound basis to guide my behaviour.

Where Alien and co go wrong is in thinking having a near universal agreement that TACTDJFF is wrong means something more than a near universal agreement.  It doesn't.
Yes, it does, as has been explained by people other than me. If you and I agree that TACTDJFF is morally wrong and that that wrongness does not depend on how many people think it so (you and I might be the only people in the world who think it wrong and stuff the rest if they think is OK) then you and I are logically bound to believe in the existence of objective morality.
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The case for gay marriage being OM is far more interesting as that has far less of a consensus  - the theists would find it very hard to come to an agreement with that.
Maybe, but the thread is about whether objective morality exists or not; it is not whether action A, B or C are examples of it.
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Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #568 on: August 11, 2015, 07:52:22 PM »
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Which is why Alan has studiously avoided other suggested examples, such as SSM or euthanasia, claiming that TACTDJFF alone is sufficient to demonstrate OM:
Correct.
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it clearly isn't,
Except that some have said that TACTDJFF is morally wrong and does not depend on how many people think it so. That means they logically ought to agree that OM exists.
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and it is so obviously contrived as to be laughable as a meaningful example of a pressing moral issue (as expected, since WLC is its chief proponent).
That's a cop out. Even if something is contrived, it is still an example of OM. Something does not have to be "a meaningful example of a pressing moral issue" to be objectively morally wrong. I would have thought you would have understood that (seriously).
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Leonard James

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #569 on: August 11, 2015, 07:57:40 PM »
If you and I agree that TACTDJFF is morally wrong and that that wrongness does not depend on how many people think it so (you and I might be the only people in the world who think it wrong and stuff the rest if they think is OK) then you and I are logically bound to believe in the existence of objective morality.

Non sequitur. That you believe it is wrong is a subjective belief that it is morally wrong, which in no way proves that objective morality exists.

Gordon

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #570 on: August 11, 2015, 07:58:07 PM »
Yes, it does, as has been explained by people other than me. If you and I agree that TACTDJFF is morally wrong and that that wrongness does not depend on how many people think it so (you and I might be the only people in the world who think it wrong and stuff the rest if they think is OK) then you and I are logically bound to believe in the existence of objective morality.

This is where you are getting derailed, Alan: the 'wrongness' of TACTDJFF is inherent because the vast majority of people hold moral intuitions that TACTDJFF is wrong, supported by a range of practical concerns if it were otherwise: for all the flummery of OM it really isn't any more complicated than what people think!

Alien

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #571 on: August 11, 2015, 07:59:01 PM »
Since this thread is very long and was the second one for Al to offer a defence of his position maybe new thread time.

Several people have refuted Al's position and since he isn't able to defend his position we just as well leave this thread die.

http://www.religionethics.co.uk/index.php?topic=10684.0
Since jakswan has failed (along with Gordon and Leonard) to understand the argument despite looking at it on and off for several years and therefore isn't able to defend his position etc. I am happy to leave this thread to die (unless DT et al wish to continue their part). It looks like I am going to be significantly short of time for the foreseeable future so will have to restrict myself to threads where there seems to be a point in discussing stuff. Thus if anyone wants to reply to my final posts on this thread, please do, but I will now take my leave of this thread.

Hare yer goo.
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Gordon

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #572 on: August 11, 2015, 08:01:51 PM »
...

Which is why Alan has studiously avoided other suggested examples, such as SSM or euthanasia, claiming that TACTDJFF alone is sufficient to demonstrate OM:
Correct.
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it clearly isn't,
Except that some have said that TACTDJFF is morally wrong and does not depend on how many people think it so. That means they logically ought to agree that OM exists.
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and it is so obviously contrived as to be laughable as a meaningful example of a pressing moral issue (as expected, since WLC is its chief proponent).
That's a cop out. Even if something is contrived, it is still an example of OM. Something does not have to be "a meaningful example of a pressing moral issue" to be objectively morally wrong. I would have thought you would have understood that (seriously).

Then you'd be wrong, Alan. Your position on this issue (which it seems is limited to, and revolves around, TACTDTJFF) reeks of desperation.
« Last Edit: August 11, 2015, 08:03:50 PM by Gordon »

Nearly Sane

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #573 on: August 11, 2015, 08:06:03 PM »
Since this thread is very long and was the second one for Al to offer a defence of his position maybe new thread time.

Several people have refuted Al's position and since he isn't able to defend his position we just as well leave this thread die.

http://www.religionethics.co.uk/index.php?topic=10684.0
Since jakswan has failed (along with Gordon and Leonard) to understand the argument despite looking at it on and off for several years and therefore isn't able to defend his position etc. I am happy to leave this thread to die (unless DT et al wish to continue their part). It looks like I am going to be significantly short of time for the foreseeable future so will have to restrict myself to threads where there seems to be a point in discussing stuff. Thus if anyone wants to reply to my final posts on this thread, please do, but I will now take my leave of this thread.

Hare yer goo.

If I remember the challenge was for to show OM not that anyone else could be stated as having to think it existed or else adjust their position? Unless I have missed it, you have failed to do that. So if you want to run away with that failure, off you go.

Enki

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Re: Objective morality is independent of opinion....or is it?
« Reply #574 on: August 11, 2015, 09:38:52 PM »
Quote from Alien's Mess. 571:


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Except that some have said that TACTDJFF is morally wrong and does not depend on how many people think it so. That means they logically ought to agree that OM exists.

Well, in my case, I have always said that I consider TACTDJFF to be morally wrong and this does not depend on how many people (as long as this is greater than zero, of course) think it so. However I have always maintained that if there were no human beings, and because I view morality as a human construct, then I can see no reason for the continued existence of morality. I find that position to be quite logical.
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