OK, got your point. I'll make a note of it.
OK, got your point. I'll make a note of it.
OK, got your point. I'll make a note of it.
OK, got your point. I'll make a note of it.
OK, got your point. I'll make a note of this too.
If only you would!!! The thing is we'll be arguing this point again, I'll be saying you agreed to this and you'll be saying I never, where?, show me the post. Not only are you being disingenuous you are lying to yourself! How do you square that with your Christian faith? How do you look yourself in the eye in the mirror and consider yourself a good honest disciple of your God? What kind of testimony is that to those you want to come to your faith? "Come all ye liars and follow me!"
It is too vague, especially 2000 years ago, to make a clear judgement on it or to think it should be responded to as you claim. My claim is that you have made an err in thinking it is good enough to make a life changing response to it.
OK. We disagree on this point quite fundamentally.
This is not a matter of personal opinion it is a point of logic and rational argument which is independent of ones own viewpoint. You aren't answering me with counter-arguments here because you have non and you know in your heart of hearts your position is flawed and doesn't hold 'water'. The whole basis on which your faith position is based is deficient. The fact is you do not know what happened in the past , no one does, it is sheer speculation, and yet you have taken wholesale an iffy spiritual disposition from 2000 years ago and applied it to your life as if it had genuine validity when it clearly, logically and rationally, does not and is highly suspect and flawed.
What are these questions that JC will ask?
I would think it would be along the lines of, "Why did you view my life, death for your sins and my resurrection as something just for amusement? Why did you not respond in the way you needed to?
I did respond in the appropriate way as explained above. Would he really need to ask? All he has to do is read these threads. He can read can't he, or is he illiterate?
5) What I find ironic is that you are finding it hard to understand what I'm saying to you yet I converse in your mother tongue but you claim to have a clear idea what some people wrote 2000 years ago in a foreign discontinued language with copying error and what not. See my point?
I see your point, but it is not valid. There is an absolutely huge body of Greek literature from hundreds of years before Christ through his time and right up to the present day. There are plenty of people who understand what ancient Greek texts mean, including in the dialect used in the NT. Greek is not a discontinued language. As for copying errors, let me quote the popular skeptic scholar Bart Ehrman from an appendix in Misquoting Jesus on p252 of the American version:
Bruce Metzger is one of the great scholars of modern times, and I dedicated the book to him because he was both my inspiration for going into textual criticism and the person who trained me in the field. I have nothing but respect and admiration for him. And even though we may disagree on important religious questions – he is a firmly committed Christian and I am not – we are in complete agreement on a number of very important historical and textual questions. If he and I were put in a room and asked to hammer out a consensus statement on what we think the original text of the New Testament probably looked like, there would be very few points of disagreement – maybe one or two dozen places out of many thousands. The position I argue for in ‘Misquoting Jesus’ does not actually stand at odds with Prof. Metzger’s position that the essential Christian beliefs are not affected by textual variants in the manuscript tradition of the New Testament."
So, remind me why you think we have lost enough of the NT to not know its essential claims, in particular the essential claims of Jesus and why you read such stuff only for amusement.
You've pasted that blokes quotes before. The point I'm making, as I've said above, is not a matter of personal opinion as all people involved in this kind of discussions are just speculating to some degree or other but one of logic and rationale. Regardless of how 'huge' the stuff we have or how well we understand an old language, in the end we just can't be sure 100% and we definitely can't take an idea wholesale from the past and live our fundamental lives and principles by it. That is just insane!
Nothing in history can make "a valid claim for our attention and response" because by definition it will be deficient and flawed before it ever reaches us.
St. Augustine wrote a paper called the 'Literal Meaning of Genesis'. What he meant by 'literal' and what we mean today by 'literal' is totally different. The meaning of words change. With the Gen 6 post we have going on this thread you had troubles/task of explaining the meaning of the word for mountain/hill in the link.
Did I? Please tell me which post I had this trouble on.
There you go playing up again with, "which post?" when you know which post! The link to an old post of yours you gave me on the posts where I questioned your non-global flood idea and so on. There you pointed out that a Hebrew? word could be taken to mean mountain or hill by us 21thC duds. This is totally disingenuous to imply that we can read with 100% accuracy old languages, and know precisely what words mean even those conveying ideas, concepts and beliefs.
We all know what these are for we have seen them but still it was not too clear what the Hebrew(?) meant.
Why the question mark after the word "Hebrew"? Are you saying that you are confident there is a fundamental problem here with the original language even though you are not sure what that original language was?
The language type is not the issue it is the fact that we can't know for sure with any old language, that 100% knowledge of it is not possible. Even talking to the people we know, vis-à-vis, we still can't get a pure 100% translation of their thoughts; what's on their minds, so why do you consider 2000 year old written scripts would somehow be easy for us today? If language was clear writing legal documents could be done by any old idiot. But the fact it's not explains the endless arguments in law courts.
If you are having to deal with words referring to material things how much greater difficulty will you have with words referring to ideas and concept from history? How much fuzzier will your understanding be in regards to what they are trying to say and express? So how many words are there from the NT documents that you have misconstrued? The fact is you have no way of knowing. See point?
I see the point you are making, but it is fundamentally flawed.
An assertion and statement like that is not an argument and explains nothing with regards to the point and argument you seem to imply you have.