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Genesis talks of the gods and the gods having sex with women, which contributed for the need for the flood.....we are told.
Where? Are you certain of that?
"We are told"? What is that meant to mean? Who is telling you that? Skeptics Annotated Bible or some such "authority"?
Gen 6:4 ...the sons of God had sex with the daughters of men and had children by them. All these died in the flood so must have been wicked in the eyes of the Lord...?
Why do you think that translation is correct? For a start off, the claim was that gods having sex with women, not "sons of God."
You claim that Jesus was a son of God and that Jesus is a God. Therefore, it follows that any place that says sons of God must imply they too are Gods.
Genesis talks of gods and also, "Man has become like us gods". And like begets like.
May I suggest you look up the actual texts. Genesis does not say "Man has become like us gods". Also look up Genesis 6:4 and see if it really does mean literal sons of God. Have a look at the use of that term elsewhere.
Gen 3:22 - The lord said man has become like one of us...spot the difference Alien!
Yes, I've spotted the difference. The NIV says for Gen 3:22, "And the LORD God said, “The man has now become like one of us, knowing good and evil. He must not be allowed to reach out his hand and take also from the tree of life and eat, and live forever.” and for Genesis 6:4 it says, "The Nephilim were on the earth in those days—and also afterward—when the sons of God went to the daughters of humans and had children by them. They were the heroes of old, men of renown."
Nowhere does it say, "Man has become like us gods" as you claimed. Yours was a misquote.
I suggest you read Gen 6:4 and the verses around it.
Yes, done that. And?