It has been 2000 years or so since he said he would return. He said he did not know when he would return.
His foreknowledge deserted him, did it?
No. Why do you ask?
Ah, so when he said he didn't know, what he meant to say was "I'm not telling you"?
No. You asked if he had foreknowledge (of the event) which deserted him. Jesus did not have that foreknowledge at any point (as far as I can tell), so it could not have deserted him.
The foreknowledge he claimed he did not have, referred to "the day and the hour" - not to the period in question, about which he was specific.
OK, how about you being specific about what you think he claimed? So far all you have done is said that he and Paul got it wrong, but have been very vague.
Bloody obvious, isn't it? I've said it often enough on this forum and elsewhere, referring to Schweitzer, Ehrman, Holloway, Armstrong, Cupitt, Spong and numerous other scholars who argue that Jesus and Paul believed that history was about to be wound up, culminating in the appearance of the "Son of Man" (later apparently identified with Jesus himself)
within the lifetime of some the people that Jesus was speaking to : "There are some standing here who will not taste death till they see the Son of Man coming into his kingdom" "You will not have passed over the cities of Israel till the Son of Man be come" i.e.
This generation - the generation to whom he was speaking.
As for your quibble about you "not having laid out your position in detail yet" - it's no secret what it's going to be, since if you don't believe - as indicated in your post to Floo - that he wasn't referring to the generation to whom he was speaking, then he must be referring to a generation in the far distant future (necessarily so, since the second coming has apparently not occurred). i.e. you mean "that distant generation" QED. and other waffle, which is certainly going to be a completely different take from Hope's interpretation, who wants the Greek word in question to mean 'race' or something like (another familiar clutching-at-straws) - as if Jesus would have bothered to suggest that the Jewish people would not disappear off the face of the earth 'until all these things be fulfilled', since the implication of the text is that all peoples destiny would be wound up at the second coming.
Work it out amongst yourselves. The Bible in this instance is quite clear as to what was going on with regard to these prophecies, and it is equally clear that they have not been fulfilled. Still, you've always got 2Peter 3 to clutch on to, but it's all a bit desperate.