Having been brought up reading the KJV there was only really one version of hell, anything that evoked the realm of the dead was called hell by the translators of the KJV.
Growing up reading about the various greek/roman/norse gods Hades to me was the Greek God of the Underworld, you know the guy with the three headed dog.
Makes me wonder what word the Aramaic speaking Jesus would have really used in his discourses and if they had the same connotations?
If he was as Jewish as he seems to be in many of his discourses, the word would have meant a world of shadows or even complete non-existence - these being the characteristics implied by the word Sheol in the OT. However, the inter-testamental period described in the Apocrypha indicates that ideas on many of these matters of life and death were changing, and perhaps JC had absorbed some of these. Maybe the historical Jesus was also influenced by Greek influences - they lay all around him (at some points only about 3 miles away). However, he seems to have referred to the Valley of Hinnom quite a lot as a rather uncomfortable place, distinct from the other one (no doubt the Aramaic version of Sheol, rendered as Hades in Koine)
