No, because it's a human endeavour, it has no existence outside of human behaviour. That doesn't stop it having identifiable characteristics or it wouldn't be a meaningful term.
The interpretation and practice of religion is a human endeavour. The OP is about the manifestation of religion based on seeing a few humans endeavouring to practise their interpretation of it.
It doesn't lead to it, either, whereas religion can
So can atheism - it depends how extreme the atheist is and how much power they have.
Some atheists might just have a lack of belief in gods. Other atheists might take their lack of belief in gods further than a personal belief, leading them to believe that no one else should be allowed to express a belief in or practice something with religious overtones because it could lead to totalitarian dingbatism.
If the extremist atheist vehemently believes that
religious totalitarian dingbatism is worse for society than any other type of totalitarian dingbatism, and if the atheist has sufficient numbers and political power the extremist atheist might try to force others, outwardly at least, to adopt his way of thinking. It only takes a few extremists to give other atheists and atheism in general a bad name...
As someone who studied law I'm sure you appreciate that it goes a long, long way beyond just criminal and constitutional.
Still waiting for some supporting evidence on how you arrived at the conclusion that the law is "
primarily" for economic purposes. Like I said, the assertion is not worth discussing unless you provide some evidence to support your assertion.
Yes, there is a qualifying period.
I don't see how two people agreeing to live apart constitutes something that is one or the other's 'fault'.
You suggested in a thread on the Muslim board that if 2 people want a divorce they could get one without having to jump through arbitrary hoops imposed by the State because the State has no interest in defining the moral aspect of civil marriage - and you suggested this was a no fault divorce . I disagreed and said the State does seem to have an interest in defining some moral issues involved in civil marriage as they would not grant a divorce without the couple meeting certain criteria to the satisfaction of the State, and that the 2 year separation period was not just the time it takes to deal with the administrative aspects of breaking a marriage contract.
If the 2 people are not physically separated they have to demonstrate to the court's satisfaction a separation of lives - the court will look into whether they share a room, meals, bills, even though both consent to and want a divorce.
And if the 2 people who want to divorce have attempted to reconcile during that 2 year period, and do reconcile for a period, they are not allowed by the State to include that reconciliation period in the count of the arbitrary 2 years of separation imposed by the State.
We just seem to be disagreeing on the level of State involvement in letting a couple divorce.