Biblical Translation

[Owlswing]

What a load rubbish. You are the perfect example of an hypocrit and all you claim above are lies. Look in the mirror, you see the person who is guilty of attacking believers and those like you.

If you can't tell the truth then don't say anything at all.

My truth or yours!

Typical Christian - if someone disagrees with you they are lying - if you disagree with someone you are pointing out the truth! - you brainwashed dupe!

[floo]

My truth or yours!

Typical Christian - if someone disagrees with you they are lying - if you disagree with someone you are pointing out the truth! - you brainwashed dupe!

It was ever thus!

[Owlswing]

It was ever thus!

Agreed, but you try getting them to admit it.

[Sassy]

My truth or yours!

Typical Christian - if someone disagrees with you they are lying - if you disagree with someone you are pointing out the truth! - you brainwashed dupe!

What you wrote here are lies...

I am sorry Brownie, but if a Christian can go onto the Jewish Topic and slag Jews off for not posting there in case they should get b*******d for crucifying Christ, and also go onto the Pagan Topic to tell pagans that because they deny Christ they are nothing but a bunch of stupid ignorant people who believe in magic and false Gods and non-existent Goddesses and will find out just how stupid they are when they are thrown into the pit of Hell to suffer for the sin of blasphemy agaisnt the one and only true God, then I cannot see why I cannot come on here and make comments like that to which you replied as quoted above!

You cannot have it both ways. You are, I am glad to say, one of the more moderate Christians in your attitude to others, non-Christian others, please keep it that way, do not become another Hope, or worse another Sassy, or, even worse still, another Ad_O or Bashful Anthony.

I have never ever said that about anyone who is Jewish. Not here and not on any other forum.
So you are lying...

[Owlswing]

What you wrote here are lies...



I have never ever said that about anyone who is Jewish. Not here and not on any other forum.
So you are lying...

No - you didn't OMW did!

[OH MY WORLD!]

Matty,
Shame on you, I've never posted on the Jewish thread and I have never blamed the Jews for killing Christ. I have always blamed the pagan Romans, because the fact is the pagan Romans did the actual killing. What is it with you? I have also never suggested that Jews won't post from fear of being blamed. Clear your fog dude!

And let's have a look at your contribution to the Jewish section. Go on, LOOK! Your entire contribution is an endless tantrum, rant and silly infantile name calling. Pathetic, however, my biggest fan, one of your posts over there was a kicker, a real gem that I'm going to put on forum best bits.

The Highest Jew reply 184, matty screaming at Bashers.
"It stands for "Sweet Fanny Adams", Little Miss Purity Panties!"

I have to borrow that "little miss purity panties" zinger, Matty, I know you will feel highly honoured when I do so.

[Spud]

God said "you shall surely die" not "one of the animals shall surely die".

Depending on its context, the word translated  "in the day" can be understood to mean either: on a particular, literal day, or at a more general point in time, for example in Genesis 30:33 which says,
Young's Literal Translation
"...and my righteousness hath answered for me in the day to come, when it cometh in for my hire before thy face; -- every one which is not speckled and spotted among my goats, and brown among my lambs -- it is stolen with me".
This seems to be the sense in which the word is used also in Genesis 2:4, 5:1,2.

John Mackay says,
"Genesis 2:17 implies the process of physical death of humans came about exclusively as a result of man’s disobedience to God’s command. The grammatical construction is very similar to the way Mosaic law threatened capital punishment – ‘he will surely die,’ or ‘they will surely die’ (Exodus 21:12; Lev. 20:9-16). These were formulaic ways of declaring a death sentence. God was not saying Adam and Eve would die immediately but that death would certainly follow disobedience. This can be seen in the curse man received from God in Genesis 3:19."
http://askjohnmackay.com/did-god-kill-animals-clothe-adam-and-eve-or-did-he-create-new-skins/

[floo]

Adam and Eve did nothing wrong, imo.

[OH MY WORLD!]

Thank God your opinions don't mean anything.

[jeremyp]

Look JeremyP,

Nothing stupid just your ignorance and unwillingness to learn what the bible says

I know what the Bible says, it says Adam would die the same day and he didn't.

As it teaches they died spiritually that day and also died physically in that death was in the body as it aged so they eventually physcially died.

But not the same day.

Tell me are you closer to your impending death or nearer your birth.

I'm nearer to death but, if you told me I am going to die today, I'd be somewhat sceptical and if I am still here tomorrow, I'll tell you that you were wrong.

So Adam knows he has died spiritually and that he will die physically.

He must have known that from the beginning or he wouldn't have known that he needed to eat from the Tree of Life. God didn't change anything about Adam, he merely withheld the drug that kept him immortal.

Not sure why you cannot see the obvious truths before you.

A child can read Genesis and understand that I am right and you are wrong.

[Ricky Spanish]

The KJV is not corrupt at all. The Jewish scholars believe it to be the closest translation to their Torah.
Besides you would know that because they cannot change anything God wrote  so they actually made it so that you knew when a word of nearest definition to original Hebrew was replaced.

Really.. You think that the KJV was translated by Jewish Scholars. I think you are confusing the KJV with the Sepuginant.

For example, we know that the KJV "authors" wouldn't understand Koine Greek, the original language of the New Testament. Koine Greek had been a dead language for over a thousand years when the KJV was published for the first time in 1611.

In fact, the translators of the KJV wouldn't have even known what Koine Greek was.

In fact, the composers of the KJV just wholeheartedly lifted sections of other earlier English translations of the NT that King James liked and stuck them in their "translations". John Wycliffe’s Bible was translated from Latin into English and hand copied in the 1400s. In 1526, almost 100 years before the KJV was first published, William Tyndale’s English translation of the Greek New Testament was published. “After Tyndale’s, a number of other versions were produced. Among them were the Coverdale Bible, the Matthews Bible, the Great Bible [authorised by Henry VIII], the Geneva Bible, and the Bishops’ Bible.”[http://www.leaderu.com/orgs/probe/docs/kjvdebat.html] 

In fact, much of the KJV borrows heavily from earlier English translations, especially the Bishop’s Bible.

There is evidence that they also lifted certain translations from the Greek New Testament written by Erasmus. One of the major problems is these "translations" were corrupted by the translators to remove certain aspects they disagreed with and retranslate with aspects they believed should be contained, known as "corrections". [https://bible.org/article/conspiracy-behind-new-bible-translations].

[Sassy]

No - you didn't OMW did!

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I have not posted on the Jewish topic board according to my post and thread count.
I also know I would never blame the Jews for the Romans were the only people who could sentence Christ to death.
The Jewish law at that time forbid the Jews to sentence anyone to death.
If you knew the bible you would see when pilate washed his hands in public it was to show the death of Jesus was not his fault.
We often say it ourselves.." I wash my hand of you" in other words I want nothing to do with what happens here on in.

If you are going to make accusations at least make sure they are true.
As it was Gods will for Jesus to give up his life to save us, I am not sure why any Christian would have a go at the Jewish people.

[Sassy]

Really.. You think that the KJV was translated by Jewish Scholars. I think you are confusing the KJV with the Sepuginant.

The Septuagint is a Greek version of the Hebrew books prepared at Alexandria by Jewish Scholars of the 3rd-2nd Century bc.
The vulgate is a Latin version of the bible prepared by Jerome in 4th Century

John Wycliffe did the first English translation of the vulgate bible in around 1380.

The translation out of original tongues of the New Testament and the Pentateuch was by William Tyndale 1525-34.
Miles Coverdale published the first complete English Bible in 1535.

The English translation or Authorised Version was prepared in the time of James 1 and issued 1611.

For example, we know that the KJV "authors" wouldn't understand Koine Greek, the original language of the New Testament. Koine Greek had been a dead language for over a thousand years when the KJV was published for the first time in 1611.

In fact, the translators of the KJV wouldn't have even known what Koine Greek was.

In fact, the composers of the KJV just wholeheartedly lifted sections of other earlier English translations of the NT that King James liked and stuck them in their "translations". John Wycliffe’s Bible was translated from Latin into English and hand copied in the 1400s. In 1526, almost 100 years before the KJV was first published, William Tyndale’s English translation of the Greek New Testament was published. “After Tyndale’s, a number of other versions were produced. Among them were the Coverdale Bible, the Matthews Bible, the Great Bible [authorised by Henry VIII], the Geneva Bible, and the Bishops’ Bible.”[http://www.leaderu.com/orgs/probe/docs/kjvdebat.html] 

In fact, much of the KJV borrows heavily from earlier English translations, especially the Bishop’s Bible.

There is evidence that they also lifted certain translations from the Greek New Testament written by Erasmus. One of the major problems is these "translations" were corrupted by the translators to remove certain aspects they disagreed with and retranslate with aspects they believed should be contained, known as "corrections". [https://bible.org/article/conspiracy-behind-new-bible-translations].

I think we can say that the KJV came down from the original tongues version of the bible.
The Septuagint is the LXX  70-72 Jewish scholars worked on the translation under he patronage of Ptolemy Philadelphius at Alexandra. It applies to the Pentateuch. But we know that first bible was the translation out of original tongues of the New Testament and the Pentateuch was done by William Tyndale 1525-34.
Miles Coverdale published the first complete English Bible in 1535.
So not sure why think any corrupt translators involved???

[floo]

You can't say anything of the sort, Sass.

[Sassy]

You can't say anything of the sort, Sass.

Had you ever studied the bible history you would have known I was talking about facts... But when have you ever been one for learning facts...

[floo]

Had you ever studied the bible history you would have known I was talking about facts... But when have you ever been one for learning facts...

You wouldn't know a FACT about the Bible if it bit you on the bottom.

[Sassy]

You wouldn't know a FACT about the Bible if it bit you on the bottom.

So how come I wrote all these facts?

The Septuagint is a Greek version of the Hebrew books prepared at Alexandria by Jewish Scholars of the 3rd-2nd Century bc.
The vulgate is a Latin version of the bible prepared by Jerome in 4th Century

John Wycliffe did the first English translation of the vulgate bible in around 1380.

The translation out of original tongues of the New Testament and the Pentateuch was by William Tyndale 1525-34.
Miles Coverdale published the first complete English Bible in 1535.

The English translation or Authorised Version was prepared in the time of James 1 and issued 1611.

Do you actually know where your bum is?

[Leonard James]

So how come I wrote all these facts?
Do you actually know where your bum is?

Do you actually believe that everything you say is gospel?

[Sassy]

Do you actually believe that everything you say is gospel?

Did you believe everything God said was gospel?

Everything I say, doesn't have to be gospel so what would be the point of believing it was or not?
It isn't of any real weight in the great scheme of things.
Now if you asked me if I believed every word of God was the truth.
Then my answer would be a resounding , 'YES'.

It matters not one iota what I believe about what I have written. But it does matter if you can tell what is biblical and if you can show and understand what I say is true. If you cannot tell and show evidence it is wrong then how can you question if I believe what I say is true?

[Leonard James]

Did you believe everything God said was gospel?

Everything I say, doesn't have to be gospel so what would be the point of believing it was or not?
It isn't of any real weight in the great scheme of things.
Now if you asked me if I believed every word of God was the truth.
Then my answer would be a resounding , 'YES'.

It matters not one iota what I believe about what I have written. But it does matter if you can tell what is biblical and if you can show and understand what I say is true. If you cannot tell and show evidence it is wrong then how can you question if I believe what I say is true?

Except that "God" doesn't exist, so he couldn't have written any of it, my dear.

It was written by men who were deluded into believing that "God" was guiding them, just as you have been hoodwinked into believing them.

[Sassy]

Except that "God" doesn't exist, so he couldn't have written any of it, my dear.

It was written by men who were deluded into believing that "God" was guiding them, just as you have been hoodwinked into believing them.

That isn't an argument Leonard.
In fact it a statement without any evidence just your 'wants' and 'beliefs' about God.
You cannot by any means prove Gods word is none existence or truth.

[Leonard James]

That isn't an argument Leonard.
In fact it a statement without any evidence just your 'wants' and 'beliefs' about God.
You cannot by any means prove Gods word is none existence or truth.

And nor can you, Sass. 

[Sebastian Toe]

So how come I wrote all these facts?

Did you write them from your own personal knowledge or copy them as facts having read them from elsewhere?

[Ricky Spanish]

The Septuagint is a Greek version of the Hebrew books prepared at Alexandria by Jewish Scholars of the 3rd-2nd Century bc.
The vulgate is a Latin version of the bible prepared by Jerome in 4th Century

Correct - but you claimed that the KJV is:

.. not corrupt at all. The Jewish scholars believe it to be the closest translation to their Torah.

I informed you that No Jewish Scholars were involved in writing the KJV.

Your response was:

John Wycliffe did the first English translation of the vulgate bible in around 1380.

The translation out of original tongues of the New Testament and the Pentateuch was by William Tyndale 1525-34.
Miles Coverdale published the first complete English Bible in 1535.

In what way is John Wycliffe a Jewish scholar?

The English translation or Authorised Version was prepared in the time of James 1 and issued 1611.


I think we can say that the KJV came down from the original tongues version of the bible.

No, we can't. In fact, we can show it can from the exact opposite, it was written by people who didn't even know Koine Greek existed. You know the original tongue of the NT.

The Septuagint is the LXX  70-72 Jewish scholars worked on the translation under he patronage of Ptolemy Philadelphius at Alexandra. It applies to the Pentateuch. But we know that first bible was the translation out of original tongues of the New Testament and the Pentateuch was done by William Tyndale 1525-34.

Which was corrupted by the EDITORS of the KJV to suit their purposes and again Tyndale never translated the actual Hebrew, but took his influences from the Greek translations of the Hebrew Testaments about their G-d and took choice passages from the work of Desiderius Erasmus, who made the Greek New Testament available in Europe, to suit his teachings.

Miles Coverdale published the first complete English Bible in 1535.

Taking his cues from Tyndale, with all his flaws and retranslations...

So not sure why think any corrupt translators involved???

Because every translation was created by someone with an agenda - I struggle to see how you cannot understand that!!

I'm going to stop engaging with you about the bible. Your knowledge of how it was created is shockingly absent!!

[floo]

Poor Sass, 'twaddle' must be her middle name!