I still don't know whether your friends holding of Jesus as not God is derived from direct personal revelation or whether it is essentially held as you hold it but in an intellectually Jewish idiom.
You keep shutting this line of investigation, why?
I have answered it several times.
Here we go for another time:
(Before we go though I am proceeding along the lines that you equate experience of God with revelation of God. You use the former in your case and the latter in my friends case, so I will continue assuming you use them interchangeably)
You have a revelation of God. This best fits the Christian narrative. You therefore accept a divine Jesus.
He has a revelation of God. This best fits the Jewish narrative. He therefore does not accept a divine Jesus. If he thought there was a divine Jesus the Jewish narrative would not be the best fit to his experience.
[Further notes]
1) I use narrative as a short hand version for you "linguistic framework, so feel free to change them as best suits you]
2) Ignoring my friend, do you really think there are no Jewish people who believe they have a direct personal experience of God? Unless people who do are all lying the question remains, of how we know if your or their or any personal revelation is reliable.