Do you have any evidence - linguistic, historical, theological - to support this suggestion, DU? Jesus' words could equally be taken to imply several thousands of years ahead.
Do you have any evidence of any sort to support this suggestion? Could it not be that those who argue as you and others do are twisting the language to suit their purposes?
No - I am not twisting the language. Given just
one instance, then you might say "That's just a trope" or "It's metaphorical". Given the huge, cumulative instances when this idea of imminent apocalypse is mentioned, the miracle is that it could have been interpreted any other way.
We know of course that it was - each individual instance was given its own specific interpretation. Typical of this would be Augustine's statement that the only 'Kingdom' being referred to was the establishment of the Church.
Or when St. Paul says "we", he means the whole corpus of Christians throughout history, up to the time of the supposed Apocalypse. And so on, making a complete dog's breakfast of a fairly straightforward idea. Managed to get an established church to survive, though, didn't it?