I was primarily responding to the claim that if gay sx is perverted, then so is post-menopausal sx.
Why? I haven't made and wouldn't make such a claim. That falls to your lot.
I pointed out that heterosexual sx is the same action whether or not the woman happens to be fertile. Thus it is not a perverted action. You wouldn't say that sx when the woman isn't ovulating is perverted. So neither is it after she stops ovulating.
I wouldn't say either were perverted, but then of course, I don't say that gay "sx" is perverted either. And isn't "sx" between two gay people "the same action" each time?
I think you are forgetting that although people want sx without having children, the desire for it is built in so as to maximize the likelihood of pregnancy.
Except we're not mindless slaves to reproductive biology any more, are we?