In 2016 it was reported that Britain will become one of the first countries to use the following non-legally binding definition of antisemitism agreed at a 2016 conference of the Berlin-based International Holocaust Remembrance Alliance (IHRA).
“Antisemitism is a certain perception of Jews, which may be expressed as hatred toward Jews. Rhetorical and physical manifestations of antisemitism are directed toward Jewish or non-Jewish individuals and/or their property, toward Jewish community institutions and religious facilities.”
However, there seems to be a question mark over what exactly is part of the working definition and what isn't because the formally adopted text was accompanied in a press release by 11 examples of anti-semitism that weren't formally adopted by the IHRA members as being part of the definition.
It appears that nothing apart from the brief definition of antisemitism was formally adopted by the IHRA member states at their Bucharest meeting in 2016.
The IHRA appear reluctant to clarify the issue according to this article:
https://www.jewishvoiceforlabour.org.uk/blog/opposition-growing-use-ihra-definition-antisemtism/I see the Labour Party seems to have decided that some of the examples of anti-semitism are not helpful in defining anti-semitism.
For example, if I have understood it correctly, the Labour Party appear to not be including the following 2 examples in their definition of anti-semitism:
- Denying the Jewish people their right to self-determination, e.g., by claiming that the existence of a State of Israel is a racist endeavor.
- Drawing comparisons of contemporary Israeli policy to that of the Nazis.
I am surprised that people seem to think there can be one definition of a concept. What do other people think about the definition adopted by Labour for disciplinary purposes?
