It is a well known fact that the bible tells us God is omnipresent and omniscient?
Sorry, is this a statement or a question? To my understanding, there are passages that can be interpreted to support these ideas, especially in the Kings James translation, but it's far from clear that was the intent in the original languages.
Nothing impossible for God hence her knows the end from the beginning and has told us so. The difference is that God has power to change what he will.
This implies that all of reality is already spelt out, time is immutable, and in choosing this particular act of creation God has made all the decisions and we are merely automatons fulfilling the destiny God selected for us; therefore, any 'sins' are God's fault not ours, so why should we undergo any sort of punishment (or even lack of rewards) for doing what we had no choice but to do?
But man can make his decisions but the final outcome will be Gods.
Well, no - if God can see all of time and already know what's going to happen, man can't change that. If man could, God would not be able to see it.
This time is for the number of Gentiles to be added and when the end comes all will be justice and man will have had his day but eternity like life is only something God can grant.
What does a god outside of time know about justice? Justice is predicated on time, it's an impact after an event to somehow adjust a moral balance for an earlier action; that requires a concept of time, which a being outside of time would not have.
Sometimes we all need to check the bible and recheck.
Why do we need to refer to ancient myths when we have perfectly servicable modern works of greater nuance, subtlety and understanding?
Understanding the bible comes from studying it and realising who God really is in the great scheme of things.
And yet with all these people studying it for so long we still have hundreds of equally invalid interpretations, and at least three contested sequels...
O.