On what basis would that moderation even occur?
When they collectively vote against a bill that's been sent to them for assent, or vote to make amendments and pass it back - you know, like the upper house does now.
Again on what basis. How would the electorate be informed? Would there be a referendum on the structure of the House of Lords for instance?
How we get there, the precise details of how things are communicated are a different discussion, I think. I could see a referendum on a significant change to the convention, but the last major change to the Lords didn't get one, so who knows.
How could the seats be apportioned?
Proportionately, hopefully. You're in favour of an elected upper house, you suggested, how would you do it?
No, I want there to be the Lords world view. Religion has to be represented because people do religion and it is a huge part of there lives as irreligion or antireligion or humanism or secularism is. Look at the time spent on this forum for instance and they would have representation.
People spend huge amounts of time on science, art, sport, celebrities... they have their own fora, how do you ensure them equal representation if you're only reserving special seats for religion?
You are just reiterating your own wank fantasy if it's just about having C of E lords.
Even if it's a range of sects and cults and traditions. Why does the particular religious stance on anything merit more attention than, say, an Everton fan, or a devotee of Belinda Carlisle, or a geologist?
They don't need a dedicated house...they need a parliament...... do you realise how stupid that sounds?
Well, let's see if everybody else understands it fine. I may have failed to communicate adequately, or it may just be you failing to read past your preconceptions.
Is socioeconomics the basis of government no....that is why we have a house of Lords with Lords spiritual and Lords who are there for their wisdom and experience in temporal affairs.
Socioeconomics isn't the 'basis' of government, it's the purpose of government.
Not sure I'm sure what you are getting at here.
You say that religion needs an equal footing with other concerns, but then you want to reserve special seats for religious members of the upper house, which suggests that you don't actually want an equal footing. Make your mind up.
I think what I am saying should be obvious to any fool.
You'd think that, but you don't appear to have realised that it's nonsense, so apparently not.
Lords world view and Lords temporal make up any house existing as check and balance to a common is natural whereas an identical house to the commons offers no check to party politics.
And you think that 'any fool' should be able to understand that word salad? I suspect what you mean is that if the make-up of the Lords was similar to the make-up of the Commons then how would be it any sort of check or balance - an excellent argument against the current political nomination of Lords, I'd agree. It doesn't for a minute though explain why religion is the one area you think needs special attention in the way it's different - why not reserve places for ex-football managers, as they are a different group from those in the Commons? Why religion?
A secular house represents secular interests but not religious interests.
Secular interests are EVERYONE'S interests. For someone who deplores fools, you can't seem to get your head around that simple concept. Secularism does not equal enforced atheism. Secularism is not antitheism. Secularism is just 'religion isn't special'.
How then is that 'equal representation'? A secular house definitionally starts loaded completely in favour of secular world view... before any election for it takes place.
Yes. Which means neither religion nor atheism is favoured by the structure.
As it stands secular Lords represent 96.6% of representation to 3.4% representation by Lords spiritual.
Which is 3.4% reserved specifically for religion, and then a representative group of people who represent a mix of religion and non-religion. Why not just have the mix? Let's say, for the sake of argument, that 50% of the population were religious, and therefore that 50% of the Lords Temporal were also religious - that would leave us with a 51.7% religious upper house, where 3.4% of the house have a particularly religious remit and everyone else's religion or non-religion is incidental to their broader presence. So, again... why is religion special?
Your position is therefore the mintiest and stripiest of humbugs.
Which should make it easier for you to come up with a coherent argument against it, but you keep failing to address the key question being asked. That's never happened before....
O.