Vlad,
If you are going to quote Luke1:26-38 QUOTE ALL OF IT AND DON'T EDIT OUT THE BIT THAT DESTROYS YOUR CASE
Let me include that bit here.
verse 38 Even Elizabeth your relative is going to have a child in her old age, and she who was said to be unable to conceive is in her sixth month. For no word from God will ever fail.” “I am the Lord’s servant,” Mary answered. “May your word to me be fulfilled.” Then the angel left her.
Since the conception by the holy spirit is subsequent to this Mary has given consent in the very passage you missed out.
I find nothing else here that supports your accusation and you have been shown to be a suppressor of evidence.
Actually I just googled “conception of Jesus” and copied and pasted from a US (I assume from the spelling) website. Anyway, let’s see whether you’ve “DESTROYED MY CASE” shall we?
First Matthew makes no reference to consent: “…an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, "Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary as your wife, for the child conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit…” is in the past tense. Mary had already been impregnated before an “Angel of the Lord” (fuck me, do people really take this stuff seriously?) decided to tell Joseph about it. What’s your thinking here – that when an angel also showed up beforehand to ask Mary whether it was ok for God to knock her up, she agreed but then forgot to tell Joseph about it?
Second, as to Luke here’s 29 – 35 inclusive:
29 Mary was greatly troubled at his words and wondered what kind of greeting this might be.
30 But the angel said to her, “Do not be afraid, Mary; you have found favor with God.
31 You will conceive and give birth to a son, and you are to call him Jesus.
32 He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High. The Lord God will give him the throne of his father David,
33 and he will reign over Jacob’s descendants forever; his kingdom will never end.”
34 “How will this be,” Mary asked the angel, “since I am a virgin?”
35 The angel answered, “The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called b the Son of God.
So, so far this angel is telling her what is going to happen – not asking whether it would be ok if it did happen.
And then after all that here’s 36 – 38:
36 Even Elizabeth your relative is going to have a child in her old age, and she who was said to be unable to conceive is in her sixth month.
37 For no word from God will ever fail.”
38 “I am the Lord’s servant,” Mary answered. “May your word to me be fulfilled.” Then the angel left her.
So, according to the myth, a perhaps 13-14-year-old is told by an “Angel of the Lord” that she will
will “conceive and give birth to a son”, she’s told what to call him (“…you are to call him Jesus…”) and she’s told that Jesus will be the “Son of God”. She’s not though apparently told that she has the option to say no if she doesn’t fancy it.
And when Mary acquiesces that’s your idea of "consent" is it? Seriously? Not even close – acquiescence by a servant to the envoy of a universe-creating god is one thing, but consent in any meaningful sense would require the freedom and capacity to make a choice unencumbered by an epically asymmetric power dynamic.
If an "Angel of the Lord" knocked on your door and told you “Almighty God” wanted you to sell your house to him for £10 and you did it, would you have given your consent or just rolled over in your view?
PS As you’ve just run away from your earlier set of errors re burden of proof, can I assume you’ve “consented” to being wrong about that (again)?