So do you accept that there was no supernatural pregnancy then VG. Indeed that there are no supernatural pregnancies.
That is a positive claim. Do you have any evidence for your claim?
You don't seem to be very good at this science thing and the process of drawing conclusions.
If so why would you make all sorts of statements that imply an important distinction between supernatural ones and ones from sexual acts - if you don't think the former exist the whole notion of some kind of distinction is completely moot.
I made the distinction, because the Bible story was a story about a supernatural pregnancy, so trying to bring in current laws relating to consent to sexual acts into a Bible story about a miracle was a pointless exercise.
If you're going to drill down into the law, then you should be aware that the law is quite technical and is applied by qualified, experienced people carefully to a specific set of circumstances. Your experience in lecturing in ethics doesn't suddenly make you an expert or qualified in the field of law.
And this whole discussion seemed to start with the idea that Mary's pregnancy was evidence of misogyny in the Bible.
The whole point of Bible stories is to convey the idea of a hierarchy, with God at the top and angels, humans (men and women) etc seeking to serve God = good, and turning away from God = bad. Being a servant of a higher power is one of the key themes in religion.
So the idea that Mary considering herself a servant of God by agreeing to become pregnant = misogyny seems a bit strange. Considering yourself a servant of God applies to both men and women and men weren't exactly known for their ability to become pregnant so for the miraculous story to work it needs to be Mary. Getting pregnant thousands of years ago isn't evidence of exploitation - some women then and now actually want to become pregnant, despite the known health risks.