So ignoring Mary's age, which we do not know and therefore cannot determine if she was under-age by whatever age of consent we choose to consider, is our difference of opinion on whether her consent was legally valid or whether she would be considered in a legal case to have been coerced, based on the text in the story? My opinion is we can't reach a legal conclusion based on the wording in the text, as there is not enough information to determine valid consent from a legal perspective.
I disagree - and again ignoring the age issue, from the text there is plenty of evidence that there cannot be valid consent. For example:
1. There is no indication that Mary has a choice and is free to choose whether or not to become pregnant. In order legally to avoid a claim of battery or more likely negligence it must be made patently clear to someone considering, for example, an elective medical procedure that it is for them to choose.
2. Where there is a clear power relationship active steps need to be taken to avoid pressure and soft coercion whereby an individual perceives that they must acquiesce to the opinion of the person in a position of power. There is one hell of a humdinger of a power relationship going on here. In fact Mary considers herself to be the servant of the person telling her what will happen.
3. Emotionally charged situations can mitigate against valid consent - if someone is scared, for example, if may mean that they are unable to freely choose between options. The text indicates that Mary is afraid and just saying 'don't be afraid' won't mitigate against this.
4. Lack of information - from the text, Mary clearly doesn't understand what is going on and there is virtually no information provided - this would never meet the legal standard of adequate and sufficient, as for example there is no mention of 'alternatives' - like Mary not becoming pregnant!