VG,
What he said was he sensed god's presence in his consciousness. Which part of that is objective testable evidence?
None of it.
So no the analogy didn't fail for the reasons already explained. Vlad didn't claim to have objectively testable evidence that god was present. He stated a subjective belief based on an inner experience.
That’s a
non sequitur. The fact that Vlad doesn’t have “objective testable evidence” (or any evidence at all for that matter) for his god
does not imply that he doesn’t think his god is objectively real nonetheless – that is, he thinks that his “inner experience” (albeit justified with some very bad arguments) is a reliable guide to objective truths for all of us, only some of us haven’t had his good fortune of “encountering” it.
If you don’t believe me, ask him yourself.
What do you mean by 'turning up', given Vlad said he didn't believe in a physical god?
Another
non sequitur. He thinks he “encountered” an objectively real, ie non-imaginary god – that god would therefore have had to have made itself available by some means for that to be the case – ie, “turned up”.
That's illogical. How can people retrieve information that their brain is not already familiar with? Where is the source of this information they reach for other than their brain?
And that’s the
non sequitur hat trick! That’s not what I said. What I said was that when anyone having an “experience” turns only to knowledge they are already enculturated to for their causal explanations for it there’s no reason to take those explanations seriously.
Can you link to where Vlad has claimed objectively testable evidence? He said the presence was in his consciousness. How is that a claim for having objectively testable evidence?
Why are you doing this? Try to focus here: he DOESN’T (to my knowledge) claim to have objectively testable evidence; he DOES though claim his god to be an objective fact for all of us nonetheless.
A belief in "god" just means that someone holds the idea that their concept of god is true. Whereas a fact is something that has empirical evidence to support it, until new evidence comes along that amends the fact. You do know the two are not the same right? The belief that something is true is subjective, whereas facts can be objectively tested.
Sometimes you post something so dim witted (as here) that I seriously wonder whether you’re just trolling. VLAD THINK HIS SUBJECTIVE EXPERIENCE THAT HE ASCRIBES TO “GOD”
IS EVIDENCE THAT THERE IS THEREFORE A GOD.
It doesn’t matter for this purpose that he jumps straight from the subjective to the objective with no logic (or very poor logic) or evidence to bridge the gap – the salient fact is that
he does it nonetheless.
You still haven't explained what's remarkable about it, despite me asking many times. Any sense he makes of an experience he has will be based on information already stored in his brain. What's remarkable about that and what's the alternative?
FFS. Try to focus here: the point that was made to him was that he (like all theists) explains his “experience” solely by reference to the information he has already about a “god”. He doesn’t though suddenly reach for information about, say, an Amazonian tribe’s animal spirit god or one of the gods of ancient Rome for his explanation. All these claims of god(s) are also claims of objective fact – there really is the Christian god; there really is an animal spirit god; there really is Neptune etc. They are claims
about the objects of beliefs. They are claims of
objectively true entities.
What you did though was to flag the effect of environment on
subjective responses (tastes and preferences) to objectively true phenomena (tea, music etc). The statement “I prefer coffee to tea” is a claim of the subjective, but it’s not a claim about the objective fact of tea or coffee.
And that was your category error.