Gabriella,
Because you’re conflating “interpretation” with “plain meaning”. Chapman may well have interpreted CitR that way, but there’s nothing expressly in that book that justifies it. I claim no expertise in the Quran, but as I understand it there’s some repugnant stuff there as well as the bits you like. Here for example:
“And righteous women are devoutly obedient and, when alone, protective of what Allah has entrusted them with. And if you sense ill-conduct from your women, advise them ˹first˺, ˹if they persist,˺ do not share their beds, ˹but if they still persist,˺ then discipline them ˹gently˺.”
https://quran.com/an-nisa/34
WTF?
We've discussed this so many times before and my answer has not changed.
So once again, not sure why you think your quote has a plain meaning, given the original is in Arabic, and you have quoted a translation that even a quick Wikipedia search would have told you has many differing interpretations based on the multiple meanings that root words in Arabic have and the grammar. E.g. endings of Arabic words signify who is being addressed, and the context and previous uses of the phrases and words in the Quran can be used to infer meanings in this context.
For example there is conflict over the meaning of "devoutly obedient" - as some scholars say the use of devout refers to obedience to Allah and is used in other parts of the Quran to require men and women to be obedient to Allah; but other Muslim scholars interpret it to mean wives should be obedient to their husbands. The interpretation selected by an individual would be influenced by the person's nature/ nurture - so I disagree that there is a plain meaning.
From your atheist perspective you interpret the words simplistically, but that's your subjective opinion, not an objective meaning. There are alternative interpretations.
https://www.islamandquran.org/fatwas/obedience-to-husband.htmlSimilarly, there is disagreement over what "ill-conduct" means e.g. is it ill-conduct in relation to Islam or specifically towards the husband; there is also disagreement about what "discipline them" means. (I assume you have no problem with marital disagreements ,discussions or a husband sleeping on the couch or leaving his wife because of irreconcilable differences so am not addressing the "advise them / don't share their bed" part).
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/An-Nisa,_34 The line immediately before the lines you quoted sets the context of the situation where a husband and wife disagree while a husband is acting as both protector and provider. It says "Men are the protectors and maintainers of women, because Allah has given the one more (strength) than the other, and because they support them from their means."
So some Muslims interpret the Arabic translated as 'discipline' to mean that in a marriage where a husband is the breadwinner and financially supports his wife, ;discipline' means a symbolic gesture of using a toothpick (miswak) to tap the wife, or some Muslims think it means separate from the wife etc etc.
Not surprisingly I think I'll stick with Islam and the Quran as Muslims seem to accommodate varying interpretations and discussions about this and many other verses. Similarly, I have not ditched British culture just because casual misogyny, objectifying women or hounding women who hold gender-critical beliefs is present in some parts of British culture.
Do the bits of the Quran you cherry pick because you find them helpful or appealing stand alone on their merits, or do you have to embrace religious faith too for that to be the case?
I can't remove my faith to know how useful the words would be on their merits so I can't answer that. My experience is that Faith - or any other emotional response- influences perspective and gives deeper meanings to the words on a page.
Also see my reply to Stranger about how faith can help people cope during times of struggle.
I’m not. What I’m “singling out” is the tendency of the faithful (of any stripe) to jump from subjective beliefs to objective truths, and to act accordingly. As for morality specifically, again you’re missing the point. If you think the Bible contains the inerrant moral teachings of God or the Quran contains the inerrant moral teachings of Allah then that’s the end of the matter. The (often contradictory by the way) rules are frozen as written, impervious to revision or dumping for all time no matter how barbaric the morality of the society at the time and place they were written. Secular morality on the other hand is at least open to argument, to criticism and to development as societies change over time. This isn’t to imply for one moment that morality can be objectively “true” (ie, your straw man), but it is to say that without the dead hand of religious certainty morality can at least be supported with argument, and reflective of the Zeitgeist of the society that has it etc.
We've had this discussion about certainty - religious or otherwise - before - and my answer hasn't changed. I gather you don't have a problem with people who are not certain about their religious views. From previous discussions we've had, I gather you have a problem with non-religious people who express certainty about moral truths.
In other words, you may think you’d “handicap” yourself by, for example, not being amenable to being “disciplined” by men for your “ill-conduct”, but I don’t.
That's your simplistic interpretation.